Which of the following is a major feature of Alagille syndrome?
Which of the following is a premalignant lesion for carcinoma of the rectum?
In Articular cartilage, most active chondrocytes are seen in ?
Brown tumors are seen in:
Most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma is
What are the common causes of vertebra plana?
Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?
All are features of Paget's disease except which of the following?
Which of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
What does a Tzanck smear in varicella-zoster virus infection typically show?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following is a major feature of Alagille syndrome?
- A. Bile duct paucity (Correct Answer)
- B. IHBR dilation
- C. PBC
- D. PSC
Explanation: ***Bile duct paucity*** - **Bile duct paucity** is a hallmark histologic finding in Alagille syndrome, leading to **cholestasis** and liver disease. - This results from the reduced number of **intrahepatic bile ducts**, which are crucial for bile flow. *IHBR dilation* - **Intrahepatic biliary radical (IHBR) dilation** is characteristic of biliary obstruction, which is not the primary feature of Alagille syndrome. - Alagille syndrome is primarily a genetic condition leading to **hypoplasia or paucity** of bile ducts, not dilation. *PBC* - **Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)** is an autoimmune disease primarily affecting **small intrahepatic bile ducts**, leading to their destruction and fibrosis [1]. - It is typically seen in middle-aged women and is characterized by **antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)**, which are not features of Alagille syndrome. *PSC* - **Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by **inflammation and fibrosis** of both intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts [2]. - PSC is strongly associated with **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)** and **ANCA positivity**, which are distinct from the genetic basis and features of Alagille syndrome [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 864-865. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 865-866.
Question 62: Which of the following is a premalignant lesion for carcinoma of the rectum?
- A. Juvenile polyposis
- B. Adenomatous polyps (Correct Answer)
- C. Familial adenomatous polyposis
- D. Hyperplastic polyps
Explanation: ***Familial polyposis*** - Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterized by numerous **adenomatous polyps** in the colon and rectum, which have a high risk of progressing to colorectal cancer [1]. - Individuals with FAP are at significant risk for developing **carcinoma rectum** at a young age if the condition is not managed properly [1]. *Juvenile polyp* - Juvenile polyps are generally **benign** and occur in children, with a very low risk of malignancy. - They do not contribute significantly to the risk of **carcinoma rectum** like adenomatous polyps do. *Adenomatous polyp* - While adenomatous polyps are indeed premalignant [1], the term **Familial polyposis** indicates a hereditary condition that specifically has a higher and more defined risk for rectal carcinoma. - Adenomatous polyps can occur sporadically and do not imply a genetic syndrome like familial polyposis. *FAP* - FAP refers specifically to **familial adenomatous polyposis** [1], which is the same concept as familial polyposis but less encompassed in terms of broad assessment in this context. - It is important to note that **familial polyposis** is a broader term that includes conditions like FAP and indicates a significant risk factor for rectal cancer [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 817, 821-822.
Question 63: In Articular cartilage, most active chondrocytes are seen in ?
- A. Zone 1
- B. Zone 4
- C. Zone 3
- D. Zone 2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Zone 2*** - This is the **transitional (or middle) zone**, where chondrocytes are numerous and more metabolically active, responsible for synthesizing major components of the extracellular matrix. - Chondrocytes here are typically **ovoid or round**, arranged somewhat randomly, and are involved in maintaining the cartilage structure. *Zone 1* - This is the **superficial (or tangential) zone**, where chondrocytes are **flattened** and oriented parallel to the articular surface. - Their primary role is to resist shear forces, and they are generally less metabolically active compared to those in the transitional zone. *Zone 3* - This is the **deep (or radial) zone**, characterized by **columnar arrangements** of chondrocytes. [1] - While these chondrocytes are metabolically active and synthesize matrix components, they are generally less active than those in the transitional zone and are more involved in resisting compressive forces. *Zone 4* - This is the **calcified zone**, directly adjacent to subchondral bone, where chondrocytes are **sparse** and often hypertrophic prior to eventual calcification. - This zone acts as an interface between cartilage and bone, and its chondrocytes have significantly reduced metabolic activity once calcification occurs. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1184.
Question 64: Brown tumors are seen in:
- A. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
- B. Osteomalacia
- C. Neurofibromatosis
- D. Hyperparathyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypeparathyroidism*** - Brown tumors, also called osteitis fibrosa cystica, are **osteolytic lesions** associated specifically with **hyperparathyroidism** due to increased osteoclastic activity [1][2]. - Elevated levels of **parathyroid hormone (PTH)** lead to bone resorption, giving rise to the characteristic bone changes seen in this condition [1][2]. *Neurofibromatosis* - Neurofibromatosis primarily presents with **neurofibromas**, café-au-lait spots, and skin-related findings, not with brown tumors. - Bone manifestations include **scoliosis** or **plexiform neurofibromas**, but they do not typically lead to brown tumors. *Pigmented villonodular synovitis* - This is a **joint condition** featuring hyperplastic synovial tissue and local joint swelling, but it does not involve **bone changes** typical of brown tumors. - Characterized by **pigmented nodules** in the synovium, it doesn't cause osteolytic lesions seen in hyperparathyroidism. *Osteomalacia* - Osteomalacia is primarily due to **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to softening of the bones, not the formation of **brown tumors**. - It results in bone pain and weakness, with radiological changes such as **Looser's zones** rather than the well-defined lucencies associated with brown tumors. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1105-1106. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1194.
Question 65: Most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma is
- A. Pyloric metaplasia
- B. Intestinal metaplasia (Correct Answer)
- C. Ciliated metaplasia
- D. Paneth cell metaplasia
Explanation: ***Intestinal metaplasia*** - **Intestinal metaplasia** is a precursor lesion where gastric epithelium is replaced by intestinal-type epithelium, significantly increasing the risk for **gastric carcinoma** [1][2]. - It is a recognized **high-risk factor**, especially in cases of chronic gastritis and atrophic changes in the stomach lining [1][2]. *Ciliated metaplasia* - This condition is generally associated with **respiratory epithelium** and is not linked to gastric carcinoma risk. - It does not involve gastric epithelial changes, therefore, it does not influence **gastric cancer development**. *Pyloric metaplasia* - Pyloric metaplasia typically occurs in chronic gastritis but does not confer a significant **risk** of gastric carcinoma. - It is more related to gastric mucosa adaptation and does not show the same risk association as **intestinal metaplasia**. *Paneth cell metaplasia* - Paneth cell metaplasia is primarily seen in **intestinal disorders** and does not serve as an indicator for gastric carcinoma. - It does not reflect changes in gastric epithelium that are related to cancer risk in the stomach. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 777-778. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 354-355.
Question 66: What are the common causes of vertebra plana?
- A. Eosinophilic granuloma
- B. Metastatic disease
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Vertebra plana** refers to the severe flattening of a vertebral body, often caused by a destructive lesion, and all listed options are known causes. [5] - While **eosinophilic granuloma** is a classic cause, **metastatic disease** and **tuberculosis** can also lead to significant vertebral collapse. [3], [5] *Eosinophilic granuloma* - This is a benign condition, a form of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis**, which commonly affects children and can cause vertebra plana. [1] - It results from proliferative lesions of **Langerhans cells** that infiltrate the bone, leading to its destruction and collapse. [1] *Metastatic disease* - **Malignant tumors** often spread to the spine, causing osteolytic lesions that weaken the vertebral body. [4], [5] - The destruction caused by metastatic deposits can lead to **vertebral collapse** and associated pain. [5] *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis of the spine (Pott's disease)** is an infectious inflammatory condition that can severely damage vertebral bodies. [2], [3] - The granulomatous inflammation and caseous necrosis can erode the bone, leading to **vertebral collapse** and kyphosis. [2] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 630. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1197-1198. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 669-670. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 724-725. [5] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 671-672.
Question 67: Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?
- A. Pancreatic carcinoma
- B. Thyroid carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Endometrial carcinoma
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Thyroid carcinoma*** - **Papillary** and **medullary thyroid carcinomas** can produce **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - In **papillary thyroid cancer**, calcification occurs due to **psammoma bodies** (concentrically laminated calcified structures). - In **medullary thyroid cancer**, calcification can occur through **dystrophic calcification** within the tumor tissue. - Other common causes of calcified lung metastases include **osteosarcoma** and **chondrosarcoma**. *Pancreatic carcinoma* - Pancreatic carcinoma rarely causes **calcified pulmonary metastases**; metastatic lesions are typically **non-calcified**. - Metastases are more commonly found in the **liver** and **peritoneum**. - Primary pancreatic tumors may show calcification, but metastases usually do not. *Endometrial carcinoma* - Endometrial carcinoma metastases to the lungs are usually **non-calcified** and appear as **soft tissue nodules**. - While it can metastasize to the lungs, **calcification** is not a typical feature of its pulmonary spread. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **thyroid carcinoma** (particularly papillary type) is a well-recognized cause of **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - Among epithelial malignancies, thyroid carcinoma is one of the classic causes of this finding.
Question 68: All are features of Paget's disease except which of the following?
- A. Defect in osteoclasts
- B. Affects only axial skeleton (Correct Answer)
- C. Can lead to hearing loss
- D. Can lead to bone cancer
Explanation: ***Affects only axial skeleton*** - This statement is **FALSE** and therefore the correct answer to this "EXCEPT" question. - Paget's disease **can affect any bone in the body**, including both axial skeleton (spine, skull, pelvis) and appendicular skeleton (femur, tibia, humerus) [1]. - Common sites include: **pelvis (70%), spine, skull, femur, and tibia** [1]. - While it frequently affects axial bones, it is **not exclusive** to them. *Defect in osteoclasts* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - The disease is characterized by **abnormal, hyperactive osteoclasts** with increased number of nuclei (up to 100 vs normal 3-5). - These osteoclasts show **excessive bone resorption activity** followed by disorganized bone formation [1]. - The primary defect involves **increased osteoclast activity and sensitivity to RANKL**. *Can lead to hearing loss* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - Skull involvement can lead to **compression of cranial nerve VIII** (vestibulocochlear nerve) [1]. - Enlargement and disorganization of temporal bone can cause **conductive or sensorineural hearing loss**. - Occurs in approximately 30-50% of patients with skull involvement. *Can lead to bone cancer* - This is a TRUE feature of Paget's disease. - **Osteosarcoma** develops in approximately **1%** of Paget's disease patients. - Risk is higher in patients with **polyostotic disease** and long-standing involvement. - This is a rare but serious complication with poor prognosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1192-1194.
Question 69: Which of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
- A. Reactive new bone formation
- B. Cloaca is an opening in involucrum
- C. Involucrum is dead bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Sequestrum is hard and dense
Explanation: ***Involucrum is dead bone*** - This statement is false because the **involucrum** is the layer of **new bone formation** that surrounds a segment of necrotic (dead) bone, known as the **sequestrum**, in chronic osteomyelitis [1]. - The involucrum represents the body's attempt to wall off the infection and dead bone, and thus, it is living, *reactive bone*, not dead bone [1]. *Reactive new bone formation* - This statement is true; **reactive new bone formation** occurs around infected or necrotic bone in chronic osteomyelitis, forming the **involucrum** [1]. - This process is a hallmark of the body's response to chronic infection and attempts to contain it. *Cloaca is an opening in involucrum* - This statement is true; a **cloaca** is a **fistulous tract** or opening in the **involucrum** that allows pus and necrotic debris from the infected area to drain to the skin surface. - This drainage is a common clinical sign of chronic osteomyelitis. *Sequestrum is hard and dense* - This statement is true; the **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from living bone due to ischemia and infection [1]. - Due to the loss of blood supply and avascular necrosis, it appears **dense, hard, and radiodense** on imaging, representing devitalized bone tissue that is walled off from the body's immune response. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1197-1198.
Question 70: What does a Tzanck smear in varicella-zoster virus infection typically show?
- A. Acantholytic cells
- B. Epidermal spongiosis
- C. Multinucleated giant cells (Correct Answer)
- D. Necrotic cells
Explanation: ***Multinucleated giant cells*** - A Tzanck smear identifies **multinucleated giant cells** with intranuclear inclusions, which are characteristic **cytopathic effects** of herpesviruses like VZV [1]. - These cells result from the fusion of infected keratinocytes, a hallmark finding in **herpes simplex** and **varicella-zoster infections** [1]. *Acantholytic cells* - Acantholytic cells are seen in conditions like **pemphigus vulgaris**, where there is loss of cell-to-cell adhesion between keratinocytes, leading to intraepidermal blistering. - While VZV can cause blistering, the primary cytological finding on Tzanck smear is not acantholysis but rather the presence of multinucleated cells. *Epidermal spongiosis* - Spongiosis refers to **intercellular edema** of epidermal cells, leading to widening of the intercellular spaces, typically seen in **eczematous dermatoses** [1]. - This finding is not specific to viral infections and does not represent the characteristic cytopathic effect of VZV on a Tzanck smear. *Necrotic cells* - Necrotic cells, or dead cells, are a general finding in many inflammatory and infectious processes where tissue damage occurs. - While VZV infection can lead to cell necrosis, the presence of isolated necrotic cells is not the specific, diagnostic feature for VZV on a Tzanck smear. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 366-367.