Which of the following cell types is classified as a labile cell?
Which of the following changes is NOT seen in atherosclerotic plaque at the time of rupture?
Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
According to WHO/ISN classification, which class of lupus nephritis shows a membranous pattern in SLE?
In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
In which condition are Michaelis Gutmann bodies typically seen?
Which of the following statements about Polycythemia vera is false?
What is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?
Which of the following conditions is least associated with tumor suppressor genes?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which of the following cell types is classified as a labile cell?
- A. Liver parenchymal cells
- B. Vascular smooth muscle cells
- C. Surface epithelium (Correct Answer)
- D. Neurons
Explanation: ***Surface epithelium*** - Surface epithelium is classified as **labile tissue**, meaning it undergoes constant regeneration due to its high turnover rate [1]. - Cells in this tissue are typically found in areas that experience frequent damage or abrasion, such as the skin and lining of the intestines. *Cardiac cell* - Cardiac cells are considered **permanent cells**, as they do not undergo significant regeneration after injury or damage. - Damage to cardiac cells typically leads to **fibrosis** rather than repair of the original tissue. *Liver parenchymal cell* - Liver parenchymal cells are categorized as **stable cells**, which can regenerate but do so under specific circumstances, such as injury. - They have a slower turnover rate compared to labile cells and do not constantly renew under normal conditions. *Vascular endothelial cells* - Vascular endothelial cells are considered **stable cells** as well, typically maintaining a stable population but capable of regeneration following injury. - They do not have the same rapid turnover and regeneration capability as labile cells do, especially under normal physiological conditions. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 113-115.
Question 22: Which of the following changes is NOT seen in atherosclerotic plaque at the time of rupture?
- A. Inflammatory cell infiltration
- B. Thick fibrous cap (Correct Answer)
- C. Cell debris
- D. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
Explanation: ***Smooth muscle cell hypertrophy*** - **Smooth muscle cell hypertrophy** is generally associated with stable plaques and does not typically occur in ruptured atherosclerotic plaques [2]. - At rupture, there is **loss of smooth muscle cells** and thinning of the fibrous cap, leading to plaque instability [2]. *Thin fibrosis cap* - A **thin fibrous cap** is a critical feature of vulnerable plaques, making them prone to rupture [2]. - It indicates a **weakened structure** that can no longer withstand the pressure of the underlying lipid core [2]. *Cell debris* - **Cell debris** is often found at the site of rupture, resulting from the necrosis of foam cells and smooth muscle cells. - This indicates **plaque instability** and contributes to the thrombus formation at the rupture site. *Multiple foam cap* - The presence of **multiple foam cells** reflectsing lipid accumulation in the plaque but does not contribute to the phenomenon of plaque rupture directly. - While foam cells are associated with rupture, a **foam cap** is not a recognized pathological finding at the time of rupture. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 271-272. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 268-270.
Question 23: Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
- A. 30 minutes (Correct Answer)
- B. 5 hours
- C. 1 minute
- D. 1 hour
Explanation: ***30 minutes*** - Irreversible injury to **myocardial cells** typically begins **at approximately 20-30 minutes of ischemia** [1]. - This time frame represents the critical threshold where cellular damage, including **mitochondrial dysfunction** and **sarcolemmal rupture**, becomes too severe for recovery even with reperfusion [2]. - Beyond this point, cells lose membrane integrity and undergo **coagulative necrosis** [2]. *1 minute* - Myocardial cells can tolerate **ischemia** for a short period, with reversible changes occurring within the first few minutes [4]. - At 1 minute, the injury is still entirely **reversible**, and cells can fully recover if blood flow is restored [5]. - Changes at this stage include depletion of ATP and accumulation of metabolites [5]. *1 hour* - While significant **irreversible damage** has occurred by this time, the onset of irreversibility is earlier, around the 20-30 minute mark [1]. - By 1 hour, a substantial portion of the ischemic myocardium would have undergone **necrosis**, but the critical threshold was crossed 30 minutes earlier [2]. *5 hours* - By 5 hours, nearly all myocardial tissue that was subjected to continuous **ischemia** would have experienced **irreversible injury** and necrosis [3]. - This duration is well beyond the initial window for irreversible changes, indicating extensive and widespread cell death [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolic Disease, and Shock, pp. 140-142. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 552. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 554-556. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 548-550. [5] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death, pp. 61-62.
Question 24: According to WHO/ISN classification, which class of lupus nephritis shows a membranous pattern in SLE?
- A. Diffuse proliferative pattern
- B. Membranous pattern (Correct Answer)
- C. Mesangial pattern involvement
- D. Focal proliferative pattern
Explanation: ***Membranous pattern*** - This corresponds to **Class V lupus nephritis** in the WHO/ISN classification, characterized by widespread immune complex deposition along the **glomerular basement membrane (GBM)**. - The subepithelial immune deposits lead to GBM thickening, creating the characteristic membranous pattern on light microscopy. - This pattern resembles idiopathic membranous nephropathy but occurs in the context of SLE. *Mesangial pattern involvement* - This refers to **Class I (minimal mesangial LN)** or **Class II (mesangial proliferative LN)**, where immune deposits are primarily confined to the mesangium. - There is minimal or no involvement of the glomerular capillary walls, distinguishing it from the membranous pattern. *Diffuse proliferative pattern* - This is **Class IV lupus nephritis**, the most severe form characterized by widespread **endocapillary and/or extracapillary proliferation** involving ≥50% of glomeruli. - The primary feature is cellular proliferation (mesangial, endocapillary, epithelial crescents), not the subepithelial immune deposits typical of membranous pattern. *Focal proliferative pattern* - This corresponds to **Class III lupus nephritis**, involving **endocapillary or extracapillary proliferation** in <50% of glomeruli. - Distinguished by focal (not diffuse) involvement and active proliferation rather than the membranous pattern seen in Class V.
Question 25: In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
- A. Goodpasture syndrome (linear IgG deposits in the basement membrane)
- B. MPGN type I (subendothelial deposits) (Correct Answer)
- C. MPGN type II (intramembranous deposits)
- D. IgA nephropathy (mesangial IgA deposits)
Explanation: ***MPGN type I*** - **Subendothelial deposits** are a hallmark of MPGN type I, often associated with **immune complex deposition** [1]. - This condition can present with **hematuria**, **proteinuria**, and can be triggered by infections or autoimmune diseases [1]. *Good pasture syndrome* - Primarily involves **anti-GBM antibodies** leading to **glomerulonephritis** and pulmonary hemorrhage, not subendothelial deposits. - Typically, it presents with **crescent formation** in the glomeruli rather than deposits. *MPGN type II* - Characterized by **dense deposit disease**, it features **intramembranous** rather than subendothelial deposits [1]. - It is often associated with **C3 nephritic factor** and does not show classic subendothelial pathology. *IgA nephropathy* - Characterized by **IgA deposits** primarily in the **mesangium**, not subendothelially. - It presents with **hematuria** and recurrent episodes of **macrohematuria**, especially after infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-927.
Question 26: In which condition are Michaelis Gutmann bodies typically seen?
- A. Xanthogranulomatous
- B. Pyelonephritis
- C. Malakoplakia (Correct Answer)
- D. Nail patella syndrome
Explanation: ***Malakoplakia*** - **Michaelis-Gutmann bodies** are pathognomonic histological features of malakoplakia, representing calcified concretions containing **iron and calcium** within macrophages. - These are formed around **partially digested bacteria** within defective macrophages, appearing as basophilic inclusions with a "target-like" or "owl's eye" appearance. - Malakoplakia is a chronic granulomatous inflammatory condition most commonly affecting the **urinary tract** (bladder, kidney), but can occur in other organs. *Xanthogranulomatous* - This condition is characterized by an infiltrate of **lipid-laden macrophages** (xanthoma cells, foam cells) and occasional giant cells, but **not** Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. - It most commonly affects the kidney (**xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis**) and is a destructive inflammatory process with a mass-like appearance. *Pyelonephritis* - Refers to **inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis**, usually due to bacterial infection (commonly E. coli). - Histologically, it is characterized by acute or chronic inflammatory cells, neutrophil infiltration, and potential abscess formation, **without** Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. *Nail patella syndrome* - This is a **genetic disorder** (autosomal dominant) affecting primarily the **nails, bones** (absent/hypoplastic patella, elbow dysplasia), and sometimes the kidneys (glomerular disease). - It is associated with developmental abnormalities and has **no association** with Michaelis-Gutmann bodies or malakoplakia.
Question 27: Which of the following statements about Polycythemia vera is false?
- A. Increased LAP score (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased vitamin B12 levels
- C. Leukocytosis is present
- D. Increased platelet count
Explanation: ***Decrease LAP score*** - In polycythemia vera, the **LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) score** is typically increased, indicating more mature leukocytes. - A **decrease in LAP score** is not consistent with the disease, making this statement incorrect. *Increased platelets* - Polycythemia vera often results in **thrombocytosis**, characterized by increased platelet counts [1]. - This is a common feature of the disorder, reflecting overproduction of blood cells in the bone marrow. *Leucocytosis* - Patients with polycythemia vera frequently exhibit **leucocytosis**, or increased white blood cell counts, due to hypercellularity of the bone marrow [1]. - This is an important aspect of the disease, often seen alongside increases in red blood cells and platelets. *Increased vit B12* - An elevation in **vitamin B12** levels can occur in polycythemia vera, often due to increased binding proteins. - This is a well-recognized phenomenon associated with the increased cell turnover in this condition. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 626-627.
Question 28: What is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
- A. Megaloblastic cells
- B. Microcytic cells
- C. Thrombocytosis
- D. Dry tap (hypocellular) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dry tap (hypocellular)*** - In myelofibrosis, the bone marrow is often **hypocellular** due to fibrosis [1][2], leading to a **dry tap** during aspiration. - The presence of **reticulin** and collagen deposition replaces normal hematopoietic cells [2], resulting in ineffective hematopoiesis. *Thrombocytosis* - Myelofibrosis typically leads to **thrombocytopenia**, not thrombocytosis, due to ineffective megakaryopoiesis and splenic sequestration. - Though elevated platelets can occur, they are generally a **secondary response** to the disease and not a hallmark finding. *Megaloblastic cells* - Megaloblastic changes are associated with **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiencies**, which do not occur in myelofibrosis. - In myelofibrosis, the predominant issue is **marrow fibrosis** [1][2], which does not lead to megaloblastosis. *Microcytic cells* - Microcytic cells are commonly linked to **iron deficiency anemia**, not myelofibrosis. - Myelofibrosis typically results in **variable red cell morphology** [1], but microcytic anemia is not a primary characteristic. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 628-629. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 615-616.
Question 29: MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?
- A. CD20 (Correct Answer)
- B. CD19
- C. CD43
- D. CD5
Explanation: ***CD20*** - MALT lymphoma is a type of **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**, and CD20 is a **pan B-cell marker consistently expressed** in MALT lymphomas. - CD20 positivity is **crucial for diagnosis** and is the **primary therapeutic target** for anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody therapy (Rituximab). - In diagnostic practice, **CD20 is the most important B-cell marker** for identifying MALT lymphoma and guiding treatment decisions. *CD19* - CD19 is also a **pan B-cell marker** and is **typically positive in MALT lymphoma** along with CD20. - However, in the context of this question, **CD20 is the preferred answer** because it is the **standard diagnostic marker emphasized in clinical practice** and the **primary therapeutic target**. - Both markers are positive, but CD20 has greater **clinical and therapeutic significance** in MALT lymphoma management. *CD43* - CD43 is primarily a **T-cell and myeloid marker**, but can show **aberrant expression in 40-50% of MALT lymphomas**. - While it may be positive in some cases, it is **not a defining B-cell lineage marker** and is not used as a primary diagnostic criterion for MALT lymphoma. - Its variable expression makes it **less reliable** than consistent B-cell markers like CD20. *CD5* - CD5 is typically associated with **T-cells** and certain B-cell lymphomas, particularly **chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL)** and **mantle cell lymphoma**. - **MALT lymphoma is characteristically CD5-negative**, which is an important feature for **differentiating it from CD5+ B-cell lymphomas**.
Question 30: Which of the following conditions is least associated with tumor suppressor genes?
- A. Neurofibromatosis
- B. Retinoblastoma
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) (Correct Answer)
- D. Breast cancer
Explanation: ***Multiple endocrine neoplasia*** - This syndrome involves mutations in **proto-oncogenes** like RET rather than tumor suppressor genes. - The condition is mainly characterized by the presence of **multiple endocrine tumors** rather than a failure of tumor suppression. *Retinoblastoma* - Associated with mutations in the **RB1 tumor suppressor gene**, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation [1] [2]. - Classic example of **loss of function** in a tumor suppressor gene resulting in cancer, specifically in early childhood [1] [2]. *Neurofibromatosis* - Caused by mutations in **NF1** or **NF2 genes**, both of which function as tumor suppressors. - Leads to benign tumors such as **neurofibromas** and other neurogenic tumors due to malfunction in tumor suppression. *Breast cancers* - Often related to mutations in tumor suppressor genes such as **BRCA1** and **BRCA2**, which increase cancer risk [2]. - Implicated in the hereditary form of breast and ovarian cancers due to their roles in DNA repair and cell cycle regulation [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 227-228. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 298-302.