Anatomy
1 questionsLymphatic drainage of oropharynx is mainly through?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Lymphatic drainage of oropharynx is mainly through?
- A. Superficial cervical lymph nodes
- B. Submandibular nodes
- C. Jugulodigastric node (Correct Answer)
- D. Jugulo-omohyoid nodes
Explanation: ***Jugulodigastric node*** - The **jugulodigastric node** (also known as the principal node of Küttner) is the primary drainage site for infections and malignancies of the posterior third of the tongue and tonsils, which are key components of the oropharynx. - It is a prominent node within the **deep cervical lymph node** chain, specifically located in the superior deep cervical group. *Superficial cervical lymph nodes* - These nodes primarily drain the superficial structures of the neck, scalp, and ear, and are **not the main drainage pathway** for the oropharynx. - They form a chain along the external jugular vein. *Submandibular nodes* - The **submandibular nodes** mainly drain the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, gums, floor of the mouth, and anterior face. - While part of the oral cavity, they are **not the primary drainage** for the oropharynx itself. *Jugulo-omohyoid nodes* - The **jugulo-omohyoid node** is located lower in the deep cervical chain, near the intermediate tendon of the omohyoid muscle. - It is a key drainage node for the **anterior tongue**, but not the primary or main drainage for the entire oropharynx.
ENT
3 questionsWhich of the following statements about acute retropharyngeal abscess is true?
What is the characteristic feature of ethmoidal polyps?
In which condition is the Schwartze sign observed?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Which of the following statements about acute retropharyngeal abscess is true?
- A. Treatment often involves incision and drainage.
- B. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is common in adults.
- C. Swelling typically occurs unilaterally.
- D. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is often due to lymphadenitis. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute retropharyngeal abscess is often due to lymphadenitis.*** - The **retropharyngeal lymph nodes** (nodes of Rouviere) are prominent in children and drain the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and paranasal sinuses. Infection in these areas can lead to **suppurative lymphadenitis**, which can then progress to an abscess. - **Lymphadenitis** following an upper respiratory tract infection is the **most common etiology** in children, who represent the majority of cases. This is a characteristic pathophysiological mechanism specific to retropharyngeal abscesses. - While other causes exist (trauma, foreign bodies, odontogenic infections in adults), this statement best captures the typical presentation and etiology. *Acute retropharyngeal abscess is common in adults.* - **Retropharyngeal abscesses** are far more common in **children**, especially those under 6 years of age, due to the presence of prominent retropharyngeal lymph nodes that typically atrophy by age 5-6. - In adults, retropharyngeal abscesses are rarer and usually result from trauma, foreign bodies, or odontogenic infections rather than lymphadenitis. *Swelling typically occurs unilaterally.* - The **retropharyngeal space** is a **midline structure**, and infection typically causes **bilateral** or central swelling. - **Edema and inflammation** affect the entire space, leading to generalized posterior pharyngeal wall bulging rather than true unilateral presentation. - While some asymmetry may be visible, describing the swelling as "typically unilateral" is inaccurate. *Treatment often involves incision and drainage.* - While this statement is technically true for **mature abscesses**, it is **incomplete** as a characterizing statement about retropharyngeal abscesses. - Treatment depends on stage: **early phlegmon or cellulitis** may respond to **intravenous antibiotics alone**, while a **mature abscess** requires both **I&D and antibiotics**. - The statement lacks the important context that **antibiotics are the cornerstone** of treatment, with surgical drainage reserved for established abscesses. - This is a treatment modality rather than a defining characteristic of the condition, making it a less complete answer than the etiology-based statement.
Question 932: What is the characteristic feature of ethmoidal polyps?
- A. Usually multiple
- B. Typically recurrent (Correct Answer)
- C. Can occur in children
- D. Can be associated with infections
Explanation: ***Typically recurrent*** - Ethmoidal polyps, especially those associated with **chronic rhinosinusitis** with nasal polyps, have a high tendency to **recur** even after surgical removal. - This recurrence is due to the underlying inflammatory process in the ethmoid sinuses and represents their most characteristic clinical feature. - Recurrence rates can reach **20-30%** even after functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS). *Usually multiple* - While ethmoidal polyps are often **multiple**, this is a common descriptive feature rather than their most characteristic pathological tendency. - Their multiplicity contributes to nasal obstruction and other symptoms but does not distinguish them as uniquely as their recurrence rate. *Can occur in children* - Though less common than in adults, **ethmoidal polyps can occur in children**, particularly in association with conditions like cystic fibrosis or primary ciliary dyskinesia. - However, nasal polyps in children are **rare** and should prompt investigation for underlying systemic conditions. *Can be associated with infections* - While chronic rhinosinusitis with polyps can be complicated by **bacterial infections**, the polyps themselves are primarily an inflammatory response, not directly caused by infections in most cases of ethmoidal polyps. - Their primary association is with chronic inflammation and not solely with acute or chronic infections.
Question 933: In which condition is the Schwartze sign observed?
- A. Glomus Jugulare
- B. Otosclerosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Acoustic neuroma
- D. Meniere's disease
Explanation: ***Otosclerosis*** - The **Schwartze sign** is a reddish blush seen through the tympanic membrane, indicative of increased vascularity over the promontory. - It is a classic clinical finding in **active otosclerosis**, distinguishing it from inactive forms. *Glomus Jugulare* - This is a highly **vascular tumor** of the middle ear and mastoid, often presenting with pulsating tinnitus and hearing loss. - While vascularity is present, it manifests as a **reddish-blue mass behind the tympanic membrane**, not the diffuse blush characteristic of Schwartze sign. *Meniere's disease* - Characterized by episodes of **vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus**, and aural fullness due to endolymphatic hydrops. - It does not present with any specific otoscopic findings like the Schwartze sign. *Acoustic neuroma* - This is a **benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)**, typically causing progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance issues. - It does not produce any visible changes on otoscopy and therefore lacks the Schwartze sign.
Microbiology
2 questionsWhat is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?
What is the most common cause of acute tonsillitis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. H. influenzae
- D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus*** - This bacterium, also known as **_Streptococcus pyogenes_**, is the most common cause of **streptococcal pharyngitis**, which is the precursor to most peritonsillar abscesses. - Peritonsillar abscesses are typically a complication of untreated or inadequately treated **tonsillitis**. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - While **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** can cause upper respiratory infections like sinusitis and otitis media, it is not the primary cause of peritonsillar abscesses. - Its infections are more commonly associated with **pneumonia** and **meningitis**. *Staphylococcus aureus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, but it is less frequently isolated as the primary pathogen in peritonsillar abscesses. - It can be involved in **polymicrobial infections** or as a secondary invader. *H. influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_** can cause various infections, particularly in children, such as otitis media and epiglottitis. - However, it is not considered the most common cause of **peritonsillar abscesses**.
Question 932: What is the most common cause of acute tonsillitis?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. H. influenzae
- C. Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci*** - **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)**, specifically *Streptococcus pyogenes*, is the most frequent bacterial cause of **acute tonsillitis** and pharyngitis, especially in school-aged children. - Infection can lead to complications such as **rheumatic fever** and **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** if not appropriately treated. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - While *S. pneumoniae* is a common cause of **otitis media**, **sinusitis**, and **pneumonia**, it is less commonly the primary cause of acute tonsillitis. - It typically causes respiratory infections involving the lower airways or adjacent structures rather than primarily tonsillar inflammation. *H. Influenza* - *Haemophilus influenzae* is a significant pathogen for **otitis media**, **epiglottitis**, and **meningitis**, particularly in unvaccinated children. - It is not a common primary cause of acute tonsillitis, which is predominantly bacterial or viral. *Staphylococcus aureus* - *Staphylococcus aureus* is often associated with **skin and soft tissue infections**, as well as more serious conditions like **sepsis** and **endocarditis**. - Although it can cause pharyngeal infections, it is an infrequent cause of acute tonsillitis compared to Group A Streptococcus.
Radiology
3 questionsTear drop sign is seen in?
What is the investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?
Which CT view is best for visualizing paranasal polyps?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Tear drop sign is seen in?
- A. Fracture zygomatic arch
- B. Fracture maxilla
- C. Fracture mandible
- D. Blow out fracture (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blow out fracture*** - The **tear drop sign** on imaging (often CT scan) is characteristic of an **orbital blow-out fracture**, indicating herniation of orbital contents (fat, muscle) into the maxillary sinus. - This fracture typically involves the **orbital floor** or medial wall, often caused by a blunt force trauma to the eye. *Fracture zygomatic arch* - A fracture of the zygomatic arch is often associated with a **flattening of the malar prominence** rather than a "tear drop" sign. - It might lead to restricted jaw movement if the arch impinges on the coronoid process. *Fracture maxilla* - Maxillary fractures (e.g., Le Fort fractures) involve the midface bones and cause **facial deformity**, malocclusion, and mobility of the maxilla. - The tear drop sign is not a primary diagnostic feature of maxillary fractures. *Fracture mandible* - Mandibular fractures present with pain, swelling, and **malocclusion** of the teeth. - Imaging would reveal a break in the mandible, not a tear drop sign associated with orbital contents.
Question 932: What is the investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?
- A. Contrast-enhanced CT (Correct Answer)
- B. Plain CT
- C. X-ray
- D. MRI
Explanation: ***Contrast-enhanced CT*** - A **contrast-enhanced CT** scan is the investigation of choice for **nasopharyngeal angiofibroma** due to its ability to clearly delineate the extent of the tumor, its vascularity, and its bony involvement. - The contrast highlights the **highly vascular nature** of the angiofibroma, which is crucial for surgical planning and embolization. *X-ray* - **X-rays** provide limited detail of soft tissue structures and mass lesions in the complex anatomy of the nasopharynx. - They are generally not sensitive enough to characterize a tumor like **angiofibroma** or determine its exact extent. *Plain CT* - A **plain CT** (non-contrast CT) can show soft tissue masses and bony erosion but lacks the ability to assess the **vascularity** of the tumor. - Without contrast, it's difficult to differentiate the tumor from surrounding tissues or identify its blood supply, which is critical for **angiofibroma** management. *MRI* - While **MRI** offers excellent soft tissue contrast and is valuable for assessing intracranial extension or perineural spread, **contrast-enhanced CT** is generally preferred as the primary imaging modality for angiofibroma. - **CT with contrast** is superior for demonstrating **bony erosion** and the characteristic **vascularity** of this tumor.
Question 933: Which CT view is best for visualizing paranasal polyps?
- A. Coronal view (Correct Answer)
- B. Axial view
- C. Sagittal view
- D. 3D view
Explanation: ***Coronal*** - The **coronal view** provides the best visualization of the **ostia of the paranasal sinuses**, which are crucial for assessing the extent and obstruction caused by polyps. - This orientation effectively demonstrates whether polyps are **protruding into the nasal cavity** or obstructing the drainage pathways. *Axial view* - The axial view is useful for evaluating **posterior structures** and **bony erosion** but is less optimal for assessing the vertical extent of polyps or ostial obstruction. - It can show the **anteroposterior dimensions** of polyps but does not offer the same clarity for sinus outflow tracts as the coronal view. *Sagittal view* - The sagittal view is good for showing the **craniocaudal extent** of lesions and differentiating between the nasal cavity and sphenoid sinus, but it is not ideal for comprehensive paranasal sinus polyp evaluation. - It can help in localizing some polyps but does not provide a clear overview of **sinus ostia** or lateral extension. *3D view* - A 3D reconstruction can be helpful for a general overview and surgical planning but does not offer the fine detail and specific orientation needed for primary polyp detection and ostial assessment as effectively as direct 2D views. - It is a derived image rather than a primary acquisition plane and might obscure smaller polyps or subtle anatomical relationships.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: Which fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
- A. Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones
- B. Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face
- C. Isolated nasal bone fracture
- D. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw** - A **Le Fort I fracture** is a **horizontal fracture** that detaches the entire **maxillary arch**, including the **palate** and **alveolar process**, from the rest of the facial skeleton. - This fracture line typically extends **above the level of the nasal floor** and involves the **pterygoid plates**. *Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones* - This description corresponds to a **Le Fort II fracture**, which is a **pyramidal fracture** involving the **nasal bones**, **medial walls of the orbits**, and the **maxilla**. - It creates a central fragment that includes the **nasal bridge** and part of the maxilla, separating it from the frontal bone. *Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face* - This refers to a **Le Fort III fracture**, also known as **craniofacial disjunction**. - It involves the separation of the entire **midfacial skeleton** from the **cranial base**, often extending through the **zygomaticofrontal sutures** and **nasofrontal sutures**. *Isolated nasal bone fracture* - An **isolated nasal bone fracture** involves only the nasal bones and does not extend into the maxilla or other facial structures. - It is a much more **localized injury** compared to any of the Le Fort fracture patterns.