Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions is primarily treated with Vitamin B6?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 871: Which of the following conditions is primarily treated with Vitamin B6?
- A. Cystathionuria
- B. None of the options
- C. Xanthourenic aciduria
- D. Homocystinuria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Homocystinuria*** - The most common form of **homocystinuria** is caused by **cystathionine β-synthase (CBS) deficiency**, which requires **pyridoxal phosphate (Vitamin B6)** as a cofactor. - Approximately **50% of patients** with CBS deficiency are **B6-responsive**, making **high-dose Vitamin B6 (100-500 mg/day)** a **first-line primary treatment** for these cases. - This is a **clinically significant condition** that requires treatment, manifesting with features like **ectopia lentis, marfanoid habitus, intellectual disability, and thromboembolism**. - B6 supplementation enhances residual CBS enzyme activity and reduces plasma homocysteine levels. *Cystathionuria* - Caused by **cystathionine γ-lyase deficiency**, which also uses **Vitamin B6** as a cofactor. - This is generally a **benign, asymptomatic condition** that does **NOT require treatment**. - While B6 can reduce cystathionine accumulation, it is **not a primary treatment indication** because the condition is clinically insignificant. *Xanthurenic aciduria* - Caused by **kynureninase deficiency** in the **tryptophan metabolism pathway**, which requires **pyridoxal phosphate**. - This is a **rare and usually benign condition** that does not typically require treatment. - Not a primary indication for B6 therapy. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as **Homocystinuria** (CBS deficiency) is a **primary indication** for high-dose Vitamin B6 therapy in B6-responsive patients.
ENT
1 questionsDuring functional endoscopic sinus surgery the position of the patient is
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 871: During functional endoscopic sinus surgery the position of the patient is
- A. Lateral
- B. Lithotomy
- C. Reverse Trendelenburg (Correct Answer)
- D. Trendelenburg
Explanation: ***Reverse Trendelenburg*** - This position helps to reduce **venous congestion** in the surgical field, which is crucial for maintaining clear visibility during **functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)**. - It minimizes **bleeding** by allowing gravity to drain blood away from the head and neck, improving surgical precision and safety. *Trendelenburg* - This position involves tilting the patient with the head lower than the feet, which would increase **venous pressure** in the head and neck. - Increased venous congestion would lead to significant **bleeding**, severely impairing visibility during FESS. *Lateral* - The lateral position is generally used for procedures involving the **side of the body**, such as kidney surgery or lung procedures. - It does not provide the optimal ergonomic access or venous drainage benefits required for **endoscopic sinus surgery**. *Lithotomy* - The lithotomy position is characterized by the patient lying on their back with hips and knees flexed and supported, primarily used for **pelvic or perineal procedures**. - This position is entirely inappropriate for **head and neck surgery** as it does not allow proper access to the sinus area.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhat is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 871: What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
- A. 750 - 1500 ml
- B. 1500 - 2000 ml (Correct Answer)
- C. > 2000 ml
- D. < 750 ml
Explanation: ***1500 - 2000 ml*** - **Class III hemorrhagic shock** is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume, typically ranging from **30-40%** of total blood volume. - For an average adult, this translates to an estimated **1500-2000 ml** of blood loss, leading to marked physiological compromise. *750 - 1500 ml* - This range of blood loss corresponds to **Class II hemorrhagic shock**, where physiological changes are moderate, but compensatory mechanisms are still largely effective. - Patients in Class II shock typically present with **tachycardia** and a slight decrease in pulse pressure but generally normal blood pressure. *> 2000 ml* - A blood loss exceeding **2000 ml** (or >40% of total blood volume) is indicative of **Class IV hemorrhagic shock**, the most severe category. - This level of blood loss results in pronounced **hypotension**, severe tachycardia, and often requires immediate massive transfusion to prevent irreversible organ damage. *< 750 ml* - This range represents **Class I hemorrhagic shock**, which involves a minimal blood loss of up to 15% of total blood volume. - Patients in Class I shock typically show **minimal to no clinical signs of shock**, as compensatory mechanisms are highly effective in maintaining vital signs.
Question 872: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperosmolar dehydration
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.
Pediatrics
3 questionsWhat is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?
What is the standard duration used to define apnea of prematurity?
All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 871: What is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?
- A. 30 g/d (Correct Answer)
- B. 40 g/d
- C. 50 g/d
- D. 60 g/d
Explanation: ***30 g/d*** - From **6 to 12 weeks** of age, infants typically experience a rapid growth phase, with an average daily weight gain of approximately **30 grams** (or about 1 ounce per day). - This rate of gain is crucial for monitoring proper nutrition and overall development during this early stage of infancy. *40 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **40 g/d** is higher than the typical average for infants between 6 and 12 weeks of age. - While individual growth rates can vary, sustained gains at this level might raise questions about overfeeding or unusually rapid growth, although it is not usually a cause for concern. *50 g/d* - A weight gain of **50 g/d** is significantly above the expected average for infants in the 6- to 12-week age range. - Such rapid weight gain, if sustained, could indicate excessive caloric intake or potentially signal underlying metabolic issues that need evaluation. *60 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **60 g/d** is an exceptionally high rate for infants between 6 and 12 weeks, far exceeding the average. - This level of growth would be a strong indicator for further investigation into feeding practices and the infant's health to rule out any potential concerns.
Question 872: What is the standard duration used to define apnea of prematurity?
- A. Between 10 and 15 sec
- B. 20 sec (Correct Answer)
- C. More than 30 sec
- D. Less than 10 sec
Explanation: ***20 sec*** - Apnea of prematurity is defined as a cessation of breathing lasting **20 seconds or longer**, or a shorter pause in breathing accompanied by **bradycardia** (heart rate <100 bpm), **cyanosis**, or **pallor**. - This duration is crucial for determining the need for intervention and diagnosis in preterm infants. - The definition is standardized by the **American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)** and is widely accepted in neonatal care. *Between 10 and 15 sec* - While pauses in breathing of this duration can be observed in preterm infants, they are usually considered **central periodic breathing** and not true apnea of prematurity unless accompanied by desaturation or bradycardia. - These shorter pauses are often considered benign, as significant physiological changes like bradycardia or cyanosis are less likely to occur. *More than 30 sec* - While a breathing cessation of more than 30 seconds certainly qualifies as apnea of prematurity, **20 seconds is the established minimum duration** for diagnosis. - Any apnea lasting longer than 20 seconds signifies a more severe event, indicating a greater risk to the infant. *Less than 10 sec* - Pauses in breathing lasting less than 10 seconds are generally considered **normal physiological variations** in both preterm and full-term infants. - These short pauses do not typically lead to significant oxygen desaturation or bradycardia and are not indicative of apnea of prematurity.
Question 873: All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?
- A. Abundant lanugo
- B. Thick ear cartilage (Correct Answer)
- C. Empty scrotum
- D. No creases on sole
Explanation: ***Thick ear cartilage*** - **Thick ear cartilage with well-formed incurving of the pinna** is a feature of a **mature** or **full-term** neonate. - In premature neonates, the ear cartilage is typically **thin, soft, and flexible**, with less developed incurving. *Abundant lanugo* - **Lanugo**, fine soft hair, is typically abundant on the back and shoulders of **premature neonates**. - This hair is often shed by full-term babies before or shortly after birth. *Empty scrotum* - An **empty scrotum** indicates undescended testes, which is common in **premature male neonates**. - Testicular descent typically occurs later in gestation. *No creases on sole* - The absence or scarcity of **creases on the sole of the foot** is characteristic of **premature neonates**. - As gestational age increases, the number and depth of plantar creases increase.
Surgery
3 questionsIn which of the following conditions is neurosurgery not indicated?
Steroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 871: In which of the following conditions is neurosurgery not indicated?
- A. Subdural hematoma (SDH)
- B. Epidural hematoma (EDH)
- C. Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) (Correct Answer)
- D. Intracerebral hemorrhage
Explanation: ***Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)*** - Neurosurgery is generally **not indicated** for diffuse axonal injury because the primary damage involves widespread shearing of axons throughout the white matter, rather than a focal, surgically accessible lesion. - Management of DAI is primarily **supportive**, focusing on managing intracranial pressure and optimizing cerebral perfusion, as there is no specific surgical intervention to reverse the axonal damage. *Subdural hematoma (SDH)* - Surgical intervention, such as a **craniotomy** or **burr hole drainage**, is often indicated for acute or subacute subdural hematomas, especially when they are large, causing mass effect, or leading to neurological deterioration. - The goal of surgery is to **evacuate the blood clot** and relieve pressure on the brain. *Epidural hematoma (EDH)* - **Epidural hematomas** are typically surgical emergencies that require urgent craniotomy for evacuation of the hematoma to relieve pressure on the brain. - This is due to their rapid development and tendency to cause significant **mass effect** and brain herniation. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - Neurosurgery may be indicated for certain types of **intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)**, particularly those that are superficial, large, causing significant mass effect, or located in a surgically accessible area. - The decision for surgery often depends on the **size and location of the bleed**, the patient's neurological status, and the risk of further deterioration.
Question 872: Steroids are injurious to wound healing when administered during which time frame?
- A. 2-4 weeks
- B. > 4 weeks
- C. Within 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. On the first day
Explanation: ***Within 2 weeks*** - Steroids administered **within the first 2 weeks** of wound healing significantly impair the **inflammatory and proliferative phases**, crucial for new tissue formation. - This early disruption can lead to **decreased collagen synthesis**, reduced wound contraction, and increased risk of **dehiscence**. *On the first day* - While steroids can affect the very early inflammatory response, the most detrimental impact on overall wound healing processes, particularly **collagen deposition**, occurs over a slightly longer initial period. - The effects of a single dose on day one might be less pronounced than sustained steroid exposure during the more critical **proliferative phase**. *2-4 weeks* - By this stage, the wound is typically in the **remodeling phase**, where collagen fibers are being reorganized and strengthened. - While steroids can still mildly affect healing, their **most damaging effects** on crucial initial processes have usually passed. *> 4 weeks* - Beyond 4 weeks, the wound is generally well into the **remodeling or maturation phase**, and often has achieved significant tensile strength. - Steroid administration at this stage would have **minimal impact** on the overall structural integrity of the healed wound, although chronic steroid use has systemic effects.
Question 873: What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
- A. Taxis (Correct Answer)
- B. Stopa's technique
- C. Kugel patch
- D. McVay procedure
Explanation: ***Taxis*** - **Taxis** is the manual reduction of a hernia by applying gentle, sustained pressure to gently guide the herniated contents back into the abdominal cavity. - This technique is typically used for **reducible hernias** to prevent complications like strangulation. *Kugel maneuver* - The **Kugel patch** is a device used in the surgical repair of inguinal hernias, not a method of manual reduction. - It involves a **preperitoneal mesh** placed during an open repair to reinforce the weakened abdominal wall. *Macvay procedure* - The **McVay repair** (also known as Cooper's ligament repair) is a surgical technique for inguinal hernias. - It involves suturing the **conjoint tendon** to Cooper's ligament for a strong repair, not a manual reduction. *Stopa's technique* - "Stopa's technique" is not a recognized medical term or a standard method for hernia reduction or repair. - This option appears to be a **distractor** and does not correspond to any established medical procedure for hernias.