Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?
Impotence is a feature of which of the following:
All of the following are features of Obstructive jaundice except:
Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Which of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?
- A. Renal artery thrombosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Pancreatic pseudocyst
- C. Splenic vein thrombosis
- D. Pancreatic fistula
Explanation: ***Renal artery thrombosis*** - **Renal artery thrombosis** is generally associated with conditions like **atherosclerosis**, atrial fibrillation, or vasculitis, not directly with chronic pancreatitis. - While chronic pancreatitis can lead to systemic complications, direct renal arterial clotting is an atypical and **uncommon sequela**. *Pancreatic pseudocyst* - **Pancreatic pseudocysts** are common complications of chronic pancreatitis, occurring when fluid collections around the pancreas become walled off by fibrous tissue [1]. - They can cause pain, obstruction, and even rupture if left untreated [2]. *Splenic vein thrombosis* - **Splenic vein thrombosis** can result from inflammation and compression of the splenic vein by the diseased pancreatic tissue in chronic pancreatitis [1]. - This can lead to **splenomegaly** and **gastric varices** due to increased pressure in the portal system. *Pancreatic fistula* - A **pancreatic fistula** occurs when pancreatic fluid leaks from the gland, often forming a connection to another organ or the skin [2]. - This is a well-recognized complication of both acute and chronic pancreatitis, usually due to ductal disruption.
Question 832: Impotence is a feature of which of the following:
- A. Poliomyelitis
- B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- C. Meningitis
- D. Multiple sclerosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Multiple sclerosis*** - **Erectile dysfunction** (impotence) is a common symptom in men with multiple sclerosis, often resulting from **demyelination** in nerve pathways controlling sexual function [1], [2]. - MS can affect various neurological functions, leading to problems with **autonomic nervous system** control, sensation, and motor coordination, all of which can impact sexual health. *Poliomyelitis* - Poliomyelitis primarily affects the **anterior horn cells** of the spinal cord, leading to acute **flaccid paralysis** of muscles. - While it can cause muscle weakness and atrophy, it is not typically associated with chronic impotence or sexual dysfunction as a primary feature. *Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis* - ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting **motor neurons**, leading to muscle weakness, atrophy, and spasticity. - It primarily impacts voluntary muscle movement and does not directly cause impotence, although the physical limitations and psychological stress can indirectly affect sexual function. *Meningitis* - Meningitis is an inflammation of the **meninges** (membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord) caused by infection. - Its symptoms include headache, fever, and neck stiffness, and while severe cases can lead to neurological complications, impotence is not a typical direct consequence.
Question 833: All of the following are features of Obstructive jaundice except:
- A. Clay colour stools
- B. Pruritis
- C. Normal alkaline phosphatase (Correct Answer)
- D. Elevated serum aminotransferases level
Explanation: ***Normal alkaline phosphatase*** - In obstructive jaundice, alkaline phosphatase is typically **elevated** due to bile duct obstruction [2]. - A **normal level** suggests that the jaundice may not be of obstructive origin. *Pruritis* - Often seen in obstructive jaundice due to **bile salts** accumulating in the bloodstream, leading to itching. - It is a common symptom associated with **cholestasis**. *Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases level* - In obstructive jaundice, serum aminotransferases are usually elevated, though may be mildly in early cases [1]. - This reflects liver involvement, which is consistent with biliary obstruction [2]. *Clay colour stools* - Clay-colored stools arise from the absence of **bile** in the intestines, indicative of obstruction [3]. - This is a direct result of blockage in the bile duct system affecting stool pigmentation [3].
Question 834: Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
- A. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
- B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- C. T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
- D. Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL)*** - **LGLL** is the most common hematological malignancy strongly associated with **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, often presenting with features such as **neutropenia** and splenomegaly. - Approximately 80% of patients with LGLL have a **T-cell phenotype**, and a significant subset experiences **autoimmune diseases**, with RA being the most frequent. *Diffuse large B cell lymphoma* - While patients with **RA** have an increased risk of **lymphoma**, **diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)** is a more aggressive type but not the most common hematologic malignancy directly associated with the disease itself in terms of prevalence [3]. - Inflammatory conditions like **RA** can contribute to chronic immune stimulation, increasing the risk of certain lymphomas, but LGLL holds a more direct and prevalent association [1]. *Chronic lymphocytic leukemia* - **Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** is a lymphoproliferative disorder of **B lymphocytes**, but it does not have a particularly strong or common association with **RA** compared to LGLL [2]. - The elevated risk of hematological malignancies in RA patients typically points more towards lymphoproliferative disorders driven by specific immune dysregulations characteristic of RA. *T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia* - **T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia (T-PLL)** is a rare and aggressive **T-cell leukemia** that generally presents with a high white blood cell count and splenomegaly, but it is not commonly linked with **RA**. - Its clinical presentation and biology are distinct from the more indolent leukemias like LGLL that are often seen in conjunction with autoimmune conditions.
Microbiology
1 questionsAn adult male presents with chronic atrophic gastritis. Growth on Skirrow's medium and a positive rapid urease test were observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: An adult male presents with chronic atrophic gastritis. Growth on Skirrow's medium and a positive rapid urease test were observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. H. pylori (Correct Answer)
- B. V. cholerae
- C. H. influenzae
- D. K. pneumoniae
Explanation: ***H pylori*** - The combination of **chronic atrophic gastritis**, growth on **Skirrow's medium**, and a **positive rapid urease test** is highly characteristic of *Helicobacter pylori* infection. - *H. pylori* is a known cause of **gastritis**, peptic ulcers, and is the only bacterium that produces large amounts of **urease**, which is detected by the rapid urease test. *H. influenzae* - This bacterium is primarily associated with **respiratory tract infections**, meningitis, and otitis media, not gastric conditions. - It does not typically grow on Skirrow's medium and is not known to produce significant urease for a positive rapid urease test. *K. pneumoniae* - *Klebsiella pneumoniae* is a common cause of **pneumonia**, urinary tract infections, and sepsis, with no direct involvement in chronic atrophic gastritis or urease production in the stomach. - It does not typically grow on selective media like Skirrow's, which is designed for microaerophilic organisms. *V. cholerae* - *Vibrio cholerae* is the causative agent of **cholera**, characterized by severe watery diarrhea, and is not associated with gastric inflammation or positive urease tests in this context. - It grows on specific media like TCBS agar and does not cause chronic atrophic gastritis.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
- A. Ligamenta flava
- B. Supraspinal ligament
- C. Post. longitudinal ligament (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior longitudinal ligament
Explanation: ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.
Pathology
2 questionsMost significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma is
Brown tumors are seen in:
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma is
- A. Pyloric metaplasia
- B. Intestinal metaplasia (Correct Answer)
- C. Ciliated metaplasia
- D. Paneth cell metaplasia
Explanation: ***Intestinal metaplasia*** - **Intestinal metaplasia** is a precursor lesion where gastric epithelium is replaced by intestinal-type epithelium, significantly increasing the risk for **gastric carcinoma** [1][2]. - It is a recognized **high-risk factor**, especially in cases of chronic gastritis and atrophic changes in the stomach lining [1][2]. *Ciliated metaplasia* - This condition is generally associated with **respiratory epithelium** and is not linked to gastric carcinoma risk. - It does not involve gastric epithelial changes, therefore, it does not influence **gastric cancer development**. *Pyloric metaplasia* - Pyloric metaplasia typically occurs in chronic gastritis but does not confer a significant **risk** of gastric carcinoma. - It is more related to gastric mucosa adaptation and does not show the same risk association as **intestinal metaplasia**. *Paneth cell metaplasia* - Paneth cell metaplasia is primarily seen in **intestinal disorders** and does not serve as an indicator for gastric carcinoma. - It does not reflect changes in gastric epithelium that are related to cancer risk in the stomach. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 777-778. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 354-355.
Question 832: Brown tumors are seen in:
- A. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
- B. Osteomalacia
- C. Neurofibromatosis
- D. Hyperparathyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypeparathyroidism*** - Brown tumors, also called osteitis fibrosa cystica, are **osteolytic lesions** associated specifically with **hyperparathyroidism** due to increased osteoclastic activity [1][2]. - Elevated levels of **parathyroid hormone (PTH)** lead to bone resorption, giving rise to the characteristic bone changes seen in this condition [1][2]. *Neurofibromatosis* - Neurofibromatosis primarily presents with **neurofibromas**, café-au-lait spots, and skin-related findings, not with brown tumors. - Bone manifestations include **scoliosis** or **plexiform neurofibromas**, but they do not typically lead to brown tumors. *Pigmented villonodular synovitis* - This is a **joint condition** featuring hyperplastic synovial tissue and local joint swelling, but it does not involve **bone changes** typical of brown tumors. - Characterized by **pigmented nodules** in the synovium, it doesn't cause osteolytic lesions seen in hyperparathyroidism. *Osteomalacia* - Osteomalacia is primarily due to **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to softening of the bones, not the formation of **brown tumors**. - It results in bone pain and weakness, with radiological changes such as **Looser's zones** rather than the well-defined lucencies associated with brown tumors. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1105-1106. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1194.
Pediatrics
1 questionsAt what month does a baby typically sit in the tripod position?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: At what month does a baby typically sit in the tripod position?
- A. 9 months
- B. 8 months
- C. 5 months
- D. 6 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **6 months** - Around **6 months** of age, infants typically develop sufficient **head control** and **trunk strength** to sit unsupported, often using their hands for balance in a **tripod position**. - This developmental milestone is crucial for further motor development, enabling improved visual exploration and hand use. *5 months* - At **5 months**, infants can usually **roll over** and support themselves on their forearms, but generally lack the **trunk stability** for unsupported sitting. - While they might briefly sit with support, the sustained **tripod position** is typically not achieved until later. *8 months* - By **8 months**, most infants can sit **unsupported for extended periods** and often begin to **crawl** or pull themselves to stand. - The tripod position is usually a precursor to fully unsupported sitting, which is well-established by this age. *9 months* - At **9 months**, infants are typically highly mobile, often **crawling**, **cruising** (walking while holding onto furniture), and sitting completely **independently** without needing hand support. - The need for a tripod position for stability would indicate a **developmental delay** at this age.
Surgery
1 questionsAll are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: All are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
- A. Leads to erosion of artery
- B. Spreads by blood borne metastasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Slowly progressive
- D. Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***Spreads by blood borne metastasis*** - Carcinoma penis typically spreads initially via the **lymphatic system** to inguinal lymph nodes. - **Hematogenous spread** is a late event and generally rare, with the most common sites being the lung, liver, and bone. *Leads to erosion of artery* - Local advancement of penile carcinoma can lead to **erosion of penile arteries**, which can cause significant morbidity including bleeding and functional compromise. - This local tissue destruction is a characteristic feature of advanced, uncontrolled penile cancer. *Slowly progressive* - Carcinoma penis is generally a **slowly progressive** malignancy, allowing for early detection and intervention if patients seek medical attention promptly. - The slow growth rate contributes to the fact that many patients present with localized or regionally advanced disease before distant metastases occur. *Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma* - Approximately 95% of penile cancers are **squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs)**, arising from the epithelial cells of the glans or foreskin. - Other rare types include melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and sarcomas, but SCC vastly predominates.