Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 731: What is the drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices?
- A. Ethanolamine oleate
- B. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
- C. Propanolol
- D. Phytonadione
Explanation: ***Octreotide*** - **Octreotide** is an analogue of **somatostatin** that reduces splanchnic blood flow and portal pressure, thereby decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices. - It is often used in the acute management of **bleeding esophageal varices** due to its rapid onset of action and favorable safety profile. *Ethanolamine oleate* - **Ethanolamine oleate** is a **sclerosing agent** used for endoscopic sclerotherapy of esophageal varices, not typically as the initial drug of choice for acute bleeding [1]. - It acts by causing inflammation and fibrosis of the varices, which can be effective but carries risks such as **esophageal ulceration** or perforation. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a **non-selective beta-blocker** used for the prophylactic prevention of variceal bleeding, not for acute management of active bleeding. - It works by reducing portal venous pressure by decreasing cardiac output and splanchnic vasoconstriction. *Phytonadione* - **Phytonadione** (vitamin K1) is used to reverse **coumarin anticoagulant effects** or to treat **vitamin K deficiency**, which can contribute to bleeding but is not a direct treatment for variceal bleeding itself. - It helps in the synthesis of **coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X**, thereby improving clotting.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
2 questionsWhich of the following is classified as a third generation Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)?
Which among the following is an absolute contraindication of Hormone replacement therapy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 731: Which of the following is classified as a third generation Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)?
- A. Mirena (Correct Answer)
- B. Nova-T
- C. Lippe's loop
- D. CuT-200
Explanation: ***Mirena*** - Mirena (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is a **third-generation IUCD** that releases **progestin**, offering both contraceptive and therapeutic benefits. - Its mechanism of action involves **thickening cervical mucus**, thinning the uterine lining, and inhibiting sperm motility/viability. *Nova-T* - Nova-T is a **second-generation IUCD** that uses **copper** as its active contraceptive agent. - Copper IUCDs like Nova-T primarily work by causing a **sterile inflammatory reaction** in the uterus, making it spermicidal. *Lippe's loop* - Lippe's loop is a **first-generation IUCD** made of inert plastic, designed to **physically block** fertilization. - It is no longer widely used due to higher rates of expulsion and complications compared to newer generations. *CuT-200* - CuT-200 is a **second-generation IUCD** that releases **copper** to prevent pregnancy. - It works by producing a **local inflammatory response** in the uterus that is toxic to sperm and eggs.
Question 732: Which among the following is an absolute contraindication of Hormone replacement therapy?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Heart disease
- C. Breast carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteoarthritis
Explanation: ### Breast carcinoma - Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is **contraindicated** in breast carcinoma because many breast cancers are **estrogen-receptor positive**, meaning estrogen can stimulate their growth [1]. - Using HRT in patients with a history of breast cancer significantly increases the risk of **recurrence** or **progression** of the disease [1]. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis is not an **absolute contraindication**; HRT can sometimes be used in women with a history of endometriosis, especially if a hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy have been performed. - However, unopposed estrogen therapy might **exacerbate** remaining endometrial implants, so a combined estrogen-progestin regimen is typically preferred [1]. *Heart disease* - While HRT has been shown to have **risks** in women with established coronary heart disease, it is not an absolute contraindication for all forms of heart disease. - The **Women's Health Initiative study** demonstrated increased cardiovascular events in older women initiating HRT, but current guidelines suggest that timing of initiation is crucial and benefits may outweigh risks for younger postmenopausal women. *Osteoarthritis* - Osteoarthritis is **not a contraindication** to HRT; in fact, some studies suggest that estrogen may have protective effects on cartilage [2]. - HRT is neither a treatment nor a contraindication for osteoarthritis and does not significantly impact its progression or severity [2].
Pharmacology
7 questionsWhich of the following is the longest acting glucocorticoid?
Which of the following is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?
What is the best drug for control of acute esophageal variceal bleeding?
What is the drug of choice for pheochromocytoma?
The best agent for increasing HDL cholesterol is?
All of the following are adverse effects of nicotinic acid except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 731: Which of the following is the longest acting glucocorticoid?
- A. Prednisone
- B. Prednisolone
- C. Cortisone
- D. Dexamethasone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Dexamethasone*** - **Dexamethasone** is a long-acting glucocorticoid with a **biological half-life of 36–72 hours**, making it the longest acting among the options provided - Its prolonged action is due to its **high affinity for the glucocorticoid receptor** and relatively slow metabolism - Provides sustained anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects *Incorrect: Prednisone* - **Prednisone** is an intermediate-acting glucocorticoid with a biological half-life of 12-36 hours - Requires metabolism in the liver to its active form, prednisolone - Duration of action is significantly shorter than dexamethasone *Incorrect: Prednisolone* - **Prednisolone** is the active form of prednisone, with a similar intermediate duration of action (12-36 hours) - Primarily used when liver conversion of prednisone is impaired - Does not possess the extended duration of action characteristic of dexamethasone *Incorrect: Cortisone* - **Cortisone** is a short-acting glucocorticoid with a biological half-life of 8-12 hours - It is a prodrug that needs to be converted to **hydrocortisone** (cortisol) in the liver to become active - Has the shortest duration among all options
Question 732: Which of the following is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
- A. Triamcinolone acetonide
- B. Hydrocortisone acetate
- C. Clobetasol propionate (Correct Answer)
- D. Betamethasone valerate
Explanation: ***Clobetasol propionate*** - **Clobetasol propionate** is recognized as one of the most potent **Class I topical corticosteroids**, used for severe inflammatory skin conditions. - Its high potency allows for effective suppression of severe inflammation and pruritus, but also carries a greater risk of **adverse effects** with prolonged use. *Triamcinolone acetonide* - **Triamcinolone acetonide** is a **medium-potency** topical corticosteroid (Class IV-V), less potent than clobetasol propionate. - It is commonly used for moderate inflammatory skin conditions, such as eczema and psoriasis, but not for severe cases requiring maximum potency. *Hydrocortisone acetate* - **Hydrocortisone acetate** is a **low-potency** topical corticosteroid (Class VII), making it the least potent option listed. - It's often used for mild inflammatory conditions, sensitive areas like the face, or for less severe conditions requiring minimal corticosteroid strength. *Betamethasone valerate* - **Betamethasone valerate** is a **medium-to-high potency** topical corticosteroid (Class III-V), placing it among stronger corticosteroids but still less potent than clobetasol propionate. - It is effective for moderate to severe inflammatory skin conditions but does not reach the highest level of potency demonstrated by clobetasol.
Question 733: Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?
- A. Griseofulvin (Correct Answer)
- B. Disulfiram
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Cimetidine
Explanation: ***Griseofulvin*** - **Griseofulvin** is an antifungal agent known to induce liver enzymes, specifically the **cytochrome P450 system**. - Enzyme induction accelerates the metabolism and clearance of **oral contraceptives**, leading to lower plasma concentrations and reduced efficacy. *Erythromycin* - **Erythromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic that typically inhibits liver enzymes rather than inducing them. - While it can interfere with the metabolism of some drugs, it usually **increases** rather than decreases the plasma levels of co-administered medications, and is not known to reduce oral contraceptive efficacy. *Disulfiram* - **Disulfiram** is used to treat chronic alcoholism and inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. - It does not significantly interact with the metabolism of **oral contraceptives** via the cytochrome P450 system or other mechanisms that would reduce their efficacy. *Cimetidine* - **Cimetidine** is an H2 receptor antagonist that is known to inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes. - This inhibition would likely **increase** the plasma concentration of drugs metabolized by these enzymes, such as oral contraceptives, rather than reducing their efficacy.
Question 734: What is the best drug for control of acute esophageal variceal bleeding?
- A. Vasopressin
- B. GnRH
- C. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
- D. Propranolol
Explanation: ***Octreotide*** - **Octreotide** is a somatostatin analog that causes **splanchnic vasoconstriction**, reducing portal venous inflow and pressure, which is crucial in controlling **esophageal variceal bleeding**. - Its mechanism involves inhibiting the release of **vasodilatory hormones** like glucagon, leading to a decrease in portal pressure without significant systemic side effects. *Vasopressin* - **Vasopressin** is a potent vasoconstrictor that can reduce portal pressure but has significant systemic side effects such as **myocardial ischemia** and **bowel ischemia** due to widespread vasoconstriction. - It is generally no longer considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for variceal bleeding due to its **adverse effect profile**. *GnRH* - **GnRH** (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone) plays a role in regulating the reproductive system by controlling the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary. - It has **no direct role** in the management or control of esophageal bleeding. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker primarily used for **prophylaxis** of variceal bleeding by reducing portal pressure chronically. - It works by reducing cardiac output and causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, but it is **not used for acute control** of active bleeding.
Question 735: What is the drug of choice for pheochromocytoma?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Phenoxybenzamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Prazosin
- D. Nitroprusside
Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine*** - This is an **irreversible, non-selective alpha-adrenergic blocker**, which is the drug of choice for preparing patients for surgical removal of a pheochromocytoma. - It effectively controls **hypertension** by blocking the effects of catecholamines on blood vessels, preventing a hypertensive crisis during surgery. *Propranolol* - **Beta-blockers** like propranolol should **not be used as monotherapy** in pheochromocytoma because blocking beta-2 receptors without prior alpha blockade can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction and precipitate a **hypertensive crisis**. - It can be added **after adequate alpha-blockade** to control tachycardia. *Prazosin* - Prazosin is a **reversible, selective alpha-1 adrenergic blocker**, which is not preferred over phenoxybenzamine due to its shorter duration of action and reversibility. - While it can lower blood pressure, its efficacy in preventing hypertensive crises during surgery for pheochromocytoma is **less robust** compared to phenoxybenzamine. *Nitroprusside* - Sodium nitroprusside is a **potent vasodilator** often used for **hypertensive emergencies**, but it is not the drug of choice for long-term management or preoperative preparation in pheochromocytoma. - Its use in pheochromocytoma is typically reserved for **acute hypertensive crises** when other agents are insufficient, rather than initial management.
Question 736: The best agent for increasing HDL cholesterol is?
- A. Statin
- B. Nicotinic acid (Correct Answer)
- C. Gugulipids
- D. Fibrates
Explanation: ***Nicotinic acid*** - **Nicotinic acid** (niacin) is known to significantly increase **high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol** levels by reducing its catabolism. - It also has beneficial effects on other lipid parameters, such as lowering **triglycerides** and **LDL cholesterol**. *Statin* - **Statins** (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors) are highly effective at lowering **LDL cholesterol** and moderately lowering triglycerides. - While they can cause a modest increase in HDL cholesterol, their primary role is not HDL elevation. *Gugulipids* - **Gugulipids**, derived from the gum resin of the _Commiphora mukul_ tree, have been used in traditional medicine to lower cholesterol. - Evidence for their efficacy in significantly increasing HDL cholesterol is weak and not clinically recommended. *Fibrates* - **Fibrates** primarily work to lower **triglyceride levels** and can modestly increase HDL cholesterol. - Their effect on HDL is generally less pronounced compared to nicotinic acid.
Question 737: All of the following are adverse effects of nicotinic acid except:
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Vasodilation
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pancreatitis*** - **Pancreatitis** is not a commonly reported adverse effect of nicotinic acid (niacin) therapy. - While other gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and vomiting can occur, pancreatic inflammation is not characteristic. *Vasodilation* - **Cutaneous flushing** and **vasodilation** are very common adverse effects of nicotinic acid, mediated by prostaglandin release. - This effect can cause a sensation of warmth, redness, and itching, especially at the start of therapy. *Liver dysfunction* - **Liver dysfunction**, including elevated liver enzymes and rare cases of **hepatotoxicity**, can occur with high doses of nicotinic acid. - Regular monitoring of liver function tests is recommended for patients on niacin therapy. *Hyperpigmentation* - **Hyperpigmentation**, particularly **acanthosis nigricans**, is a known cutaneous side effect of nicotinic acid. - This typically presents as dark, velvety patches on the skin, especially in skin fold areas.