Community Medicine
1 questionsWhat term describes the accepted behaviors and practices within a society?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: What term describes the accepted behaviors and practices within a society?
- A. Customs (Correct Answer)
- B. Traditions
- C. Cultural Practices
- D. Folkways
Explanation: ***Customs*** - **Customs** refer to the established, accepted behaviors and practices within a society that are widely recognized and followed by its members. - They are more enduring and deeply entrenched than informal folkways, representing institutionalized or significant social practices that guide social conduct. - Customs encompass the general norms, traditions, and behaviors that define "the way things are done" in a particular society. *Folkways* - **Folkways** are informal everyday customs, manners, and practices learned through observation and imitation (e.g., table manners, greetings). - They are a **subset** of customs, specifically referring to minor, informal norms with mild social disapproval for violations. - While folkways are accepted behaviors, they are too narrow to describe all "accepted behaviors and practices" in society. *Traditions* - **Traditions** are customs or beliefs passed down through generations with historical or symbolic significance. - They emphasize **intergenerational transmission** and continuity over time, making them more specific than the general concept of "accepted behaviors." *Cultural Practices* - **Cultural practices** is an umbrella term encompassing all ways a group behaves, thinks, and interacts, including beliefs, values, rituals, and institutions. - While accurate, it is **too broad** a term—customs is the more precise sociological term for accepted behaviors and practices.
ENT
1 questionsFenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?
- A. Type-3
- B. Type-2
- C. Type-4
- D. Type-5 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Type-5*** - **Fenestration operation** is classified as **Type V tympanoplasty** in Wullstein's classification. - This procedure creates a **new fenestra (window) in the lateral semicircular canal** to bypass a fixed oval window/stapes in cases of **otosclerosis**. - Sound waves are directed to this new window, bypassing the immobile stapes footplate. - Historically important procedure before **stapedectomy** became the standard treatment for otosclerosis. *Type-2* - **Type II tympanoplasty** involves repair with a **partially eroded malleus** where the graft is placed onto the **incus or remaining malleus**. - Requires an intact and mobile stapes, unlike fenestration which bypasses a fixed stapes. - Used for tympanic membrane perforations with minor ossicular damage. *Type-3* - **Type III tympanoplasty** involves placing the graft directly onto the **stapes head** (columella effect). - Performed when malleus and incus are eroded but stapes is intact and mobile. - This is **myringostapediopexy**, not fenestration. *Type-4* - **Type IV tympanoplasty** involves creating a **small middle ear cavity** with the graft placed over the **round window**. - Used when the stapes arch is absent but the footplate is mobile. - Different from fenestration as it utilizes the round window, not a semicircular canal fenestra.
Internal Medicine
3 questionsWhich of the following is used in the treatment of well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma?
Classification of aortic dissection depends on.
What is the primary vascular abnormality associated with intestinal angiodysplasia?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which of the following is used in the treatment of well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma?
- A. I131 (Correct Answer)
- B. 99m Tc
- C. 32p
- D. MIBG
Explanation: ***I131*** - **Radioactive iodine (I131)** is specifically absorbed by **well-differentiated thyroid cancer cells** because these cells retain the ability to uptake iodine, unlike other types of cancer cells. - Used for **ablating residual thyroid tissue** after surgery and for treating **metastatic well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma** [1]. *99m Tc* - **Technetium-99m (99m Tc)** is primarily used for **diagnostic imaging** (e.g., thyroid scans, bone scans), not for therapeutic treatment of thyroid cancer. - It has a short half-life and emits gamma rays, making it suitable for imaging but generally not for delivering sustained radiation for therapeutic effect. *32p* - **Phosphorus-32 (32p)** is a beta-emitting radionuclide used in the treatment of certain hematological malignancies, such as **polycythemia vera**, and for palliative treatment of bone metastases. - It is not selectively taken up by thyroid cancer cells and therefore is not used in the treatment of thyroid carcinoma. *MIBG* - **Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG)**, often labeled with I123 (diagnostic) or I131 (therapeutic), is used in the diagnosis and treatment of **neuroendocrine tumors** like **pheochromocytoma** and **neuroblastoma**. - Its uptake mechanism targets cells of neuroectodermal origin, which is distinct from the iodine uptake mechanism of thyroid cells.
Question 52: Classification of aortic dissection depends on.
- A. Cause of dissection
- B. Level of aorta affected (Correct Answer)
- C. Extent of symptoms
- D. Percentage of aorta affected
Explanation: The classification of aortic dissection is primarily based on the **segment of the aorta involved**, typically divided into Stanford and DeBakey classifications [1]. This classification helps determine **management strategies** and prognosis based on the affected aortic region (ascending or descending) [1]. Understanding the classification is crucial for guiding **treatment decisions** and predicting outcomes [1]. The classification is more concerned with **anatomical location** rather than the etiology, such as hypertension or collagen disorders [1].
Question 53: What is the primary vascular abnormality associated with intestinal angiodysplasia?
- A. Arteriovenous malformation (Correct Answer)
- B. Capillary hemangioma (usually superficial)
- C. Malignant tumor
- D. Cavernous hemangioma
Explanation: ***AV malformation*** - **Intestinal angiodysplasia** is characterized by abnormal **arteriovenous (AV) connections**, leading to vascular lesions in the gut [1]. - These malformations can cause **chronic gastrointestinal bleeding** due to fragility of the blood vessels [1]. *Capillary hemangioma* - This is a **benign vascular tumor** often found in the skin or subcutaneous tissue, not specifically associated with intestinal vascular changes. - **Capillary hemangiomas** typically do not cause significant gastrointestinal bleeding as seen in angiodysplasia. *Malignant tumor* - Intestinal angiodysplasia is a **benign condition** and not a malignant tumor, therefore it does not fit the characteristics of malignancy. - **Malignant tumors** usually present with different symptoms and underlying pathophysiology than angiodysplasia. *Cavernous hemangioma* - This type of hemangioma involves larger vascular channels and is typically more associated with the liver than the intestines. - **Cavernous hemangiomas** do not relate to the intestinal bleeding patterns seen in angiodysplasia.
Microbiology
1 questionsWhich organism is characterized by a Medusa head appearance?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which organism is characterized by a Medusa head appearance?
- A. Bacillus subtilis
- B. Bacillus stearothermophilus
- C. Bacillus cereus
- D. Bacillus anthracis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bacillus anthracis*** - This bacterium is known for forming **non-hemolytic colonies on blood agar** with a characteristic "Medusa head" appearance due to its tenacious, wavy outgrowths. - The "Medusa head" morphology is a key identifier in the laboratory diagnosis of **anthrax**. *Bacillus subtilis* - This organism typically forms **flat, dull, and spreading colonies** on agar, often with a frosted glass appearance, but not the specific "Medusa head" morphology. - It is a common **environmental bacterium** and a frequent laboratory contaminant, rarely pathogenic to humans. *Bacillus stearothermophilus* - This bacterium is a **thermophile**, meaning it grows optimally at high temperatures (around 55°C), and its colony morphology is not described as "Medusa head." - It is often used as a biological indicator for **sterilization processes** due to its heat resistance. *Bacillus cereus* - *Bacillus cereus* colonies are typically **large, feathery, and motile**, often showing **beta-hemolysis** on blood agar. - While it can form large colonies, it does not exhibit the distinctive "Medusa head" morphology observed in *Bacillus anthracis*.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhat is the best method to assess endometrial activity?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: What is the best method to assess endometrial activity?
- A. Endometrial biopsy (Correct Answer)
- B. HSG
- C. USG
- D. Colposcopy
Explanation: ***Biopsy*** - **Endometrial biopsy** provides direct tissue samples, allowing for histological examination of the endometrial glands and stroma to assess their phase (proliferative, secretory) and underlying pathology. - This method is considered the **gold standard** for accurately determining endometrial activity and diagnosing conditions like hyperplasia or carcinoma. *HSG* - **Hysterosalpingography (HSG)** is primarily used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes and the shape of the uterine cavity, not the functional activity of the endometrium itself. - It involves injecting contrast dye and taking X-rays, which helps identify structural abnormalities but does not provide microscopic details of endometrial tissue. *USG* - **Transvaginal ultrasonography (USG)** measures endometrial thickness and identifies gross structural abnormalities like polyps or fibroids. - While it can suggest the endometrial phase based on thickness, it does not offer the definitive cellular-level detail of endometrial activity that a biopsy provides. *Colposcopy* - **Colposcopy** is a procedure used to visualize the cervix and vagina with a magnified view, primarily for detecting and evaluating abnormal cells that may lead to cervical cancer. - It is **not used** for assessing the endometrial lining or its physiological activity.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsLarge, white keratic precipitates (mutton-fat KPs) are characteristically seen in?
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Large, white keratic precipitates (mutton-fat KPs) are characteristically seen in?
- A. Hemorrhagic uveitis
- B. Old healed uveitis
- C. Granulomatous uveitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute anterior uveitis
Explanation: ***Granulomatous uveitis*** - **Mutton-fat keratic precipitates (KPs)** are large, greasy-appearing white deposits on the corneal endothelium, characteristic of **granulomatous inflammation**. - These KPs are composed of macrophages and epithelioid cells, reflecting a **chronic, cell-mediated immune response** seen in granulomatous conditions. *Hemorrhagic uveitis* - This condition involves significant **intraocular bleeding**, which would manifest as hyphema or vitreous hemorrhage, not mutton-fat KPs. - While inflammation may be present, the defining feature is blood, which obscures vision differently than KPs. *Old healed uveitis* - After uveitis heals, KP morphology can change, often appearing smaller, more pigmented, or forming distinct patterns such as **Arlt's triangle**, but not typically actively large, white mutton-fat KPs. - Healed KPs often reflect a less active or resolved inflammatory process, unlike fresh mutton-fat KPs. *Acute anterior uveitis* - This typically presents with smaller, finer, and more numerous **non-granulomatous KPs** (sometimes called "stellate KPs"), in contrast to the large, greasy mutton-fat KPs. - The inflammation is usually acute and less focally organized compared to granulomatous forms.
Physiology
1 questionsConversion of chondrocytes into osteogenic cells is caused by
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Conversion of chondrocytes into osteogenic cells is caused by
- A. Insulin
- B. Thyroxine
- C. Growth hormone
- D. IGF-1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***IGF-1*** - **Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1)** is the primary direct mediator in endochondral ossification, stimulating chondrocyte proliferation, differentiation, and hypertrophy in the growth plate. - IGF-1 acts directly on chondrocytes to promote their maturation and the subsequent invasion of osteoprogenitor cells that form bone. - It plays a crucial role in longitudinal bone growth by regulating various cellular processes in the growth plate and promoting the replacement of cartilage with bone tissue. *Insulin* - While insulin has anabolic effects on bone and can interact with IGF-1 receptors due to structural similarity, its primary role is in **glucose metabolism** rather than direct regulation of chondrocyte activity in endochondral ossification. - Insulin may have supportive effects on bone formation but is not the primary hormone driving growth plate chondrocyte function. *Growth hormone* - **Growth hormone (GH)** stimulates the production of IGF-1 both systemically (from the liver) and locally (from chondrocytes and other skeletal tissues). - GH acts upstream by increasing IGF-1 levels, which then directly mediates the effects on chondrocytes. - While GH is essential for normal bone growth, IGF-1 is considered the direct effector molecule on chondrocytes. *Thyroxine* - **Thyroxine (T4)** is essential for normal skeletal development and bone maturation, particularly in regulating the timing of growth plate fusion and overall metabolic support for bone growth. - However, it does not directly regulate chondrocyte proliferation and differentiation in the growth plate during endochondral ossification. - Thyroid hormone deficiency causes growth retardation, but thyroxine is not the primary hormonal driver of chondrocyte activity.
Radiology
1 questionsInferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. ASD
- C. Multiple myeloma
- D. Coarctation of the aorta (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coarctation of the aorta*** - **Inferior rib notching** is a classic radiographic sign caused by the **enlarged, tortuous intercostal arteries** eroding the inferior margins of the ribs. - This collateral circulation develops to bypass the narrowed aortic segment, increasing blood flow through the intercostal arteries. *Rickets* - Rickets can cause **bowing of long bones**, widened epiphyseal plates, and a **rachitic rosary** (enlargement of costochondral junctions). - It does not typically lead to rib notching; rather, it affects bone mineralization and growth patterns. *ASD* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a congenital heart defect causing a left-to-right shunt, leading to pulmonary overload and right heart enlargement. - While it can manifest with cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings, it does not cause rib notching. *Multiple myeloma* - Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that causes **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, leading to bone pain and pathological fractures. - While it affects bone, the lesions are typically osteolytic and diffuse, not specifically causing inferior rib notching.