Community Medicine
1 questionsIndira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is targeted at which age group?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is targeted at which age group?
- A. Above 65 years old
- B. Above 50 years old
- C. Above 30 years old
- D. 19 years and above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***19 years and above*** - The **Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY)**, now known as the **Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)**, is a **conditional cash transfer scheme** for pregnant and lactating women. - Eligibility for the scheme generally applies to women aged **19 years and above** for their first live birth. *Above 65 years old* - This age group is typically associated with schemes targeting **senior citizens** or those needing geriatric care, not maternal benefits. - The **Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana** focuses on reproductive age and maternal health. *Above 50 years old* - Women above 50 years old are generally past their child-bearing age, making them largely irrelevant for a **maternity benefit scheme**. - This age group may be eligible for different types of social security or health schemes. *Above 30 years old* - While women above 30 years old can be pregnant and benefit from the scheme, the eligibility criteria start earlier, at **19 years and above**. - Stating "above 30 years old" would exclude a significant portion of eligible beneficiaries in their early reproductive years.
ENT
2 questionsHearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness?
What is the term for the condition where the tympanic membrane is retracted and touches the promontory?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: Hearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness?
- A. Mild
- B. Moderate
- C. Severe
- D. Moderately severe (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Moderately severe*** - A hearing loss of **65 dB** falls within the range defined as moderately severe. - The moderately severe range typically spans from **56 dB to 70 dB** in conventional audiometric classifications. *Mild* - **Mild hearing loss** is characterized by a threshold between **26 dB and 40 dB**. - Individuals with mild hearing loss may struggle with soft sounds or speech in noisy environments. *Moderate* - **Moderate hearing loss** is defined by a threshold between **41 dB and 55 dB**. - This level of loss causes difficulty understanding normal conversation without amplification. *Severe* - **Severe hearing loss** is characterized by a threshold between **71 dB and 90 dB**. - Individuals with severe hearing loss often require powerful hearing aids or other assistive listening devices.
Question 462: What is the term for the condition where the tympanic membrane is retracted and touches the promontory?
- A. Mild tympanic membrane retraction
- B. Severe tympanic membrane retraction
- C. Atelectasis of the tympanic membrane (Correct Answer)
- D. Adhesive otitis media (with middle ear adhesions)
Explanation: ***Atelectasis of the tympanic membrane*** - **Atelectasis of the tympanic membrane** (TM) specifically refers to severe **retraction** where the TM collapses onto the **promontory** or other middle ear structures. - This condition indicates a significant **negative middle ear pressure**, often leading to **conductive hearing loss** and potential long-term complications if not addressed. *Mild tympanic membrane retraction* - **Mild retraction** involves the TM being drawn inward, but it does not typically make contact with the **promontory**. - This is often observed as a prominent **short process of the malleus** or a **sharper cone of light**. *Severe tympanic membrane retraction* - While **severe retraction** describes the degree of inward pulling, **atelectasis** is the more precise term when the TM actually touches the **promontory** or other middle ear structures. - The term **severe retraction** alone might not imply contact with the bony structures of the middle ear. *Adhesive otitis media (with middle ear adhesions)* - **Adhesive otitis media** involves the formation of **fibrous adhesions** within the middle ear space, often as a result of chronic inflammation, which can **fixate** the ossicles or TM. - While severe retraction can be a precursor, **adhesive otitis media** specifically refers to the presence of these **adhesions**, which are not explicitly stated in the question.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is true about Hepatitis A virus?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: Which of the following is true about Hepatitis A virus?
- A. Causes chronic hepatitis
- B. Helps HDV replication
- C. Causes cirrhosis
- D. Common cause of hepatitis in children (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Common cause of hepatitis in children*** - **Hepatitis A virus (HAV)** infection is often acquired in childhood, particularly in areas with poor sanitation, and many infections are **asymptomatic** or mild in children [1]. - Due to their developing immune systems and often exposure in daycare or school settings, children are a highly susceptible population for HAV transmission [1]. *Causes cirrhosis* - **HAV infection** is an **acute self-limiting illness** and typically does not lead to chronic liver disease or cirrhosis [1]. - **Cirrhosis** is primarily associated with chronic viral hepatitis (e.g., HBV, HCV), alcohol-related liver disease, or certain autoimmune conditions. *Helps HDV replication* - **Hepatitis D virus (HDV)** is a **defective virus** that requires the presence of **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** surface antigen (HBsAg) for its replication and assembly [1]. - **HAV** has no role in the replication or pathogenesis of **HDV** [1]. *Causes chronic hepatitis* - **HAV infection** results in an **acute inflammatory response** in the liver that resolves spontaneously in most cases [1]. - Unlike **HBV** and **HCV**, **HAV** does not establish a persistent infection and, therefore, does not cause chronic hepatitis [1].
Microbiology
5 questionsWhich of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?
Which of the following is a cause of Valley fever (desert rheumatism)?
Which is not a DNA virus?
What is the cause of rabies in wild animals?
Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?
- A. Otomycosis
- B. Dermatophytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Allergic sinusitis
- D. Bronchopulmonary allergy
Explanation: ***Dermatophytosis*** - This condition is caused by **dermatophytes** (e.g., *Trichophyton*, *Microsporum*, *Epidermophyton*), which are a specific group of fungi that metabolize keratin. - *Aspergillus* species are generally **opportunistic molds** but do not typically cause dermatophytosis, which is a superficial fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails. *Otomycosis* - **Otomycosis** is a fungal infection of the external ear canal, and *Aspergillus* species are a common cause, particularly *Aspergillus niger*. - It can lead to ear pain, discharge, itching, and hearing impairment. *Allergic sinusitis* - **Allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS)** is a common form of fungal sinusitis where *Aspergillus* species are significant contributors, often leading to a thick, tenacious allergic mucin. - This condition is an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction to the fungal elements in the nasal and sinus cavities. *Bronchopulmonary allergy* - **Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to *Aspergillus fumigatus* antigens that colonize the airways, particularly in individuals with asthma or cystic fibrosis. - It results in recurrent episodes of wheezing, cough, and transient pulmonary infiltrates, and can lead to bronchiectasis if left untreated.
Question 462: Which of the following is a cause of Valley fever (desert rheumatism)?
- A. Sporothrix
- B. Cladosporium
- C. Phialophora
- D. Coccidioides (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coccidioides*** - **Valley fever**, or desert rheumatism, is caused by infection with the dimorphic fungus **Coccidioides**, primarily **Coccidioides immitis** and **Coccidioides posadasii**. - This fungus is endemic to arid and semi-arid regions, especially the **southwestern United States** and parts of Central and South America. *Sporothrix* - **Sporothrix schenckii** causes sporotrichosis, a chronic fungal infection typically involving the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and adjacent lymphatics, often through skin trauma. - It does not cause Valley fever. *Cladosporium* - **Cladosporium** species are ubiquitous molds commonly found in outdoor and indoor environments, often associated with allergic reactions and occasionally superficial infections. - They are not a cause of Valley fever. *Phialophora* - **Phialophora** species are dematiaceous fungi that can cause phaeohyphomycosis, chromoblastomycosis, and eumycetoma, which are subcutaneous or systemic fungal infections. - They are not associated with Valley fever.
Question 463: Which is not a DNA virus?
- A. Rhabdovirus (Correct Answer)
- B. Poxvirus
- C. Papovavirus
- D. Parvovirus
Explanation: ***Rhabdovirus*** - Rhabdoviruses, such as the rabies virus, are characterized by their **single-stranded RNA genome** and distinctive bullet-shaped morphology. - They replicate in the cytoplasm of infected cells, using their **RNA-dependent RNA polymerase** to transcribe their genome. *Papovavirus* - Papovaviruses (now split into Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae) are **DNA viruses** known for causing warts and some cancers. - They possess a small, **double-stranded, circular DNA genome**. *Poxvirus* - Poxviruses are large, complex **DNA viruses** that replicate entirely within the cytoplasm of the host cell. - They have a **double-stranded DNA genome** and are notable for causing diseases like smallpox and molluscum contagiosum. *Parvovirus* - Parvoviruses are among the smallest viruses, characterized by their **single-stranded DNA genome**. - They require actively dividing host cells to replicate their **linear DNA**.
Question 464: What is the cause of rabies in wild animals?
- A. Wild-type rabies virus (Correct Answer)
- B. Laboratory passage in rabbits
- C. Fatal encephalitis within 6 days
- D. Negri bodies are not observed
Explanation: ***Wild-type rabies virus*** - Rabies in wild animals is caused by infection with the **wild-type rabies virus (Lyssavirus)**, which is maintained in specific wildlife reservoirs. - Rabies virus is a **neurotropic RNA virus** belonging to the family *Rhabdoviridae*. - This virus is transmitted through the saliva of an infected animal, typically via a **bite**. *Laboratory passage in rabbits* - **Laboratory passage in animals**, particularly rabbits, was a historical *method for attenuating the rabies virus* to develop vaccines (e.g., Pasteur's vaccine), not a cause of infection in wild animals. - Attenuated viruses are **less virulent** and do not represent the primary cause of naturally occurring rabies in wildlife. *Fatal encephalitis within 6 days* - This statement describes a **rapid progression of the disease**, which can occur, but it is a *consequence of infection*, not the cause itself. - The incubation period for rabies can vary significantly in animals, from days to months, depending on the **site of the bite** and **viral load**. *Negri bodies are not observed* - **Negri bodies** are *pathognomonic microscopic inclusions* found in the brain cells of animals infected with rabies. - Their *absence* would generally suggest that the animal does not have rabies, making this an incorrect statement about the disease's characteristics.
Question 465: Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?
- A. P gene (Correct Answer)
- B. X gene
- C. S gene
- D. C gene
Explanation: ***P gene*** - The **P gene** (polymerase gene) encodes the viral **reverse transcriptase**, which is crucial for replicating the HBV genome. - This enzyme is very large and complex, requiring the **longest coding sequence** to accommodate all its functional domains. *X gene* - The **X gene** encodes the **HBx protein**, which is a transcriptional transactivator and plays a role in hepatocarcinogenesis. - It has a relatively **short coding sequence** compared to the P gene. *S gene* - The **S gene** encodes the **surface antigens (HBsAg)**, which are involved in viral entry and immune evasion. - It has a **shorter coding sequence** than the P gene, as it primarily codes for structural proteins. *C gene* - The **C gene** encodes the **core protein (HBcAg)**, which forms the viral nucleocapsid, and the **HBeAg**. - Its coding sequence is also **shorter** than that of the P gene, reflecting its role in structural and regulatory functions.
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following stimuli is detected by the vestibular macula?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: Which of the following stimuli is detected by the vestibular macula?
- A. Change in head position
- B. Linear acceleration (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Gravity
Explanation: ***Linear acceleration*** - The **maculae** (in the utricle and saccule) are specifically designed to detect **linear acceleration**, including both dynamic movements (speeding up in a car, elevator motion) and the constant linear acceleration of **gravity**. - Hair cells in the maculae are displaced by movements of the **otolithic membrane** containing **otoconia** (calcium carbonate crystals) in response to linear acceleration forces. - The utricle primarily detects **horizontal linear acceleration**, while the saccule detects **vertical linear acceleration**. *Gravity* - While gravity is indeed detected by the maculae, gravity is actually a form of **constant linear acceleration** (9.8 m/s²). - The maculae use gravity to determine **static head position** and orientation, but this is a subset of their broader function of detecting linear acceleration. - "Linear acceleration" is the more comprehensive and physiologically accurate term. *Change in head position* - This term is too broad and encompasses both **linear** and **angular (rotational)** movements. - **Angular acceleration** (rotation) is detected by the **semicircular canals**, not the maculae. - The maculae specifically detect linear position changes relative to gravity, not rotational changes. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the vestibular macula clearly detects linear acceleration as its primary function.