Community Medicine
2 questionsWhat is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
What is the punishment under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 451: What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
- A. 2-2-0-1-0-1
- B. 8-4-4-1-0-1
- C. 2-2-2-0-1-1
- D. 2-0-2-0-1-1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2-0-2-0-1-1*** - This schedule represents the **Thai Red Cross (TRC) regimen** for intradermal rabies vaccination that was standard at the time of this exam (2013). - The numbers indicate the number of vaccine doses administered at different sites: **2 doses on day 0** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 3**, **2 doses on day 7** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 14**, **1 dose on day 28**, and **1 dose on day 90**. - This was the **answer expected for NEET 2013** based on the guidelines prevalent at that time. - **Note:** Current WHO guidelines (post-2013) recommend the updated 2-2-2-0-1-1 schedule (4-site ID regimen) which includes doses on days 0, 3, 7, and 28. *2-2-0-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a recognized** intradermal rabies vaccination protocol. - Does not match any standard WHO-approved regimen for intradermal administration. *2-2-2-0-1-1* - While this may appear incorrect for the 2013 exam context, this schedule actually represents the **current updated Thai Red Cross (4-site ID) regimen** recommended by WHO in recent guidelines. - This regimen provides doses on **days 0, 3, 7, 28, and 90**, which is now the preferred intradermal schedule. - However, for the NEET 2013 exam, the older 2-0-2-0-1-1 schedule was the expected answer. *8-4-4-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a standard regimen** and involves an impractically high number of doses. - No recognized intradermal rabies protocol uses this many doses on initial days. - Would be **unnecessary and impractical** for effective post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 452: What is the punishment under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
- A. Imprisonment for 1 year, Rs 25,000
- B. Imprisonment for 1 year, Rs 15,000
- C. Imprisonment for 5 years, Rs 25,000
- D. Imprisonment for 6 months to 2 years or fine up to Rs 10,000 or both (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Imprisonment for 6 months to 2 years or fine up to Rs 10,000 or both*** - The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 (and its subsequent amendments, not 1986 as stated in the question, but the provisions are relevant) specifies the punishment for giving or taking dowry as **imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months**, but which may extend to **two years, or with a fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both.** - This option most accurately reflects the range of punishment prescribed by the statute, focusing on the minimum and maximum terms for both imprisonment and fine. *Imprisonment for 1 year, Rs 25,000* - This option does not align with the specific penalties outlined in the **Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961**. - The minimum imprisonment is **six months**, and the fine amount and exact imprisonment term are distinctly different from the legal provisions. *Imprisonment for 1 year, Rs 15,000* - Similar to the previous option, this does not precisely match the penalty prescribed by the **Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961**. - While one year imprisonment falls within the six-month to two-year range, the fine amount of **Rs. 15,000 is incorrect**, as the Act states a maximum fine of ten thousand rupees. *Imprisonment for 5 years, Rs 25,000* - This penalty significantly **exceeds the maximum imprisonment** and fine stipulated in the **Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961**. - The Act sets a maximum imprisonment of **two years** and a maximum fine of **ten thousand rupees**.
ENT
4 questionsHearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness?
Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)?
Retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory. What is the classification according to Sade's grading system?
Cone of light focuses on which quadrant of tympanic membrane?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 451: Hearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness?
- A. Mild
- B. Moderate
- C. Severe
- D. Moderately severe (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Moderately severe*** - A hearing loss of **65 dB** falls within the range defined as moderately severe. - The moderately severe range typically spans from **56 dB to 70 dB** in conventional audiometric classifications. *Mild* - **Mild hearing loss** is characterized by a threshold between **26 dB and 40 dB**. - Individuals with mild hearing loss may struggle with soft sounds or speech in noisy environments. *Moderate* - **Moderate hearing loss** is defined by a threshold between **41 dB and 55 dB**. - This level of loss causes difficulty understanding normal conversation without amplification. *Severe* - **Severe hearing loss** is characterized by a threshold between **71 dB and 90 dB**. - Individuals with severe hearing loss often require powerful hearing aids or other assistive listening devices.
Question 452: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)?
- A. Bartter syndrome
- B. Distal renal tubular acidosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Alport syndrome
- D. Nail-patella syndrome
Explanation: ***Distal renal tubular acidosis*** - While dRTA is associated with various systemic abnormalities like **nephrolithiasis** and **osteomalacia**, **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)** is **not a typical feature** of this condition. - The primary defect in dRTA is impaired acid secretion in the distal tubules, leading to **metabolic acidosis**. *Bartter syndrome* - This is a rare genetic disorder affecting the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to **salt wasting** and **hypokalemia**. - **SNHL** has been reported in certain variants of Bartter syndrome, particularly in those with mutations affecting the **NKCC2 transporter** or other associated genes. *Alport syndrome* - A well-known genetic disorder characterized by **glomerulonephritis**, **SNHL**, and ocular abnormalities. - The SNHL in Alport syndrome is typically **bilateral and progressive**, often beginning in childhood. *Nail-patella syndrome* - This is an autosomal dominant disorder primarily affecting the **nails**, **kneecaps**, elbows, and kidneys, with about 30-50% of affected individuals developing **renal disease**. - **SNHL** is a recognized, albeit less common, manifestation of Nail-patella syndrome, thought to be related to abnormalities in the **collagen IV** network in the cochlea.
Question 453: Retraction of tympanic membrane touching the promontory. What is the classification according to Sade's grading system?
- A. Grade 1
- B. Grade 2
- C. Grade 3 (Correct Answer)
- D. Grade 4
Explanation: ***Grade 3*** - **Grade 3** retraction involves the tympanic membrane making contact with the **promontory** of the middle ear. - This contact indicates significant retraction, often with loss of definition of the malleus handle. *Grade 1* - **Grade 1** retraction is characterized by mild retraction with an **intact cone of light** and good mobility. - The tympanic membrane does not touch any middle ear structures. *Grade 2* - **Grade 2** retraction shows the tympanic membrane touching the **incudostapedial joint** or posterior wall of the middle ear. - The handle of the malleus may appear significantly foreshortened. *Grade 4* - **Grade 4** retraction involves **adhesive otitis media**, where the tympanic membrane is severely retracted and fully adherent to the middle ear structures. - This often results in a nearly complete obliteration of the middle ear space.
Question 454: Cone of light focuses on which quadrant of tympanic membrane?
- A. Anteroinferior (Correct Answer)
- B. Posteroinferior
- C. Anterosuperior
- D. Posterosuperior
Explanation: ***Anteroinferior*** - The **cone of light** (or light reflex) is a characteristic triangular reflection of the otoscope's light, normally visible in the **anteroinferior quadrant** of a healthy tympanic membrane. - Its presence indicates a **healthy, intact eardrum** with normal tension and transparency; its absence or distortion can suggest pathology. *Posteroinferior* - While part of the tympanic membrane, the **posteroinferior quadrant** does not normally exhibit the focused cone of light. - This area is more often associated with the **round window niche** on its medial aspect in relation to the middle ear. *Anterosuperior* - The **anterosuperior quadrant** is located above the handle of the malleus and does not show the cone of light reflection. - This area contains the **anterior malleolar fold** and part of the **pars flaccida** (attic region). *Posterosuperior* - The **posterosuperior quadrant** is also not the usual site for the cone of light. - This area is relevant for the proximity to the **facial nerve** and structures like the **long process of the incus**.
Microbiology
2 questionsWhat is the cause of rabies in wild animals?
A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. Which of the following statements about sporotrichosis is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 451: What is the cause of rabies in wild animals?
- A. Wild-type rabies virus (Correct Answer)
- B. Laboratory passage in rabbits
- C. Fatal encephalitis within 6 days
- D. Negri bodies are not observed
Explanation: ***Wild-type rabies virus*** - Rabies in wild animals is caused by infection with the **wild-type rabies virus (Lyssavirus)**, which is maintained in specific wildlife reservoirs. - Rabies virus is a **neurotropic RNA virus** belonging to the family *Rhabdoviridae*. - This virus is transmitted through the saliva of an infected animal, typically via a **bite**. *Laboratory passage in rabbits* - **Laboratory passage in animals**, particularly rabbits, was a historical *method for attenuating the rabies virus* to develop vaccines (e.g., Pasteur's vaccine), not a cause of infection in wild animals. - Attenuated viruses are **less virulent** and do not represent the primary cause of naturally occurring rabies in wildlife. *Fatal encephalitis within 6 days* - This statement describes a **rapid progression of the disease**, which can occur, but it is a *consequence of infection*, not the cause itself. - The incubation period for rabies can vary significantly in animals, from days to months, depending on the **site of the bite** and **viral load**. *Negri bodies are not observed* - **Negri bodies** are *pathognomonic microscopic inclusions* found in the brain cells of animals infected with rabies. - Their *absence* would generally suggest that the animal does not have rabies, making this an incorrect statement about the disease's characteristics.
Question 452: A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. Which of the following statements about sporotrichosis is false?
- A. Enlarged lymph nodes extending centripetally as a beaded chain are a characteristic finding
- B. Most cases are acquired via cutaneous inoculation
- C. It is an occupational disease of butchers, doctors (Correct Answer)
- D. Is a chronic mycotic disease that typically involves skin, subcutaneous tissue and regional lymphatics
Explanation: ***It is an occupational disease of butchers, doctors*** - Sporotrichosis is an **occupational hazard for gardeners, florists, and agricultural workers** due to exposure to decaying plant matter, not typically for butchers or doctors. - The disease is caused by **direct inoculation** of the fungus *Sporothrix schenckii* into the skin, often through a thorn prick or minor trauma. *Most cases are acquired via cutaneous inoculation* - This statement is **true** as sporotrichosis is primarily caused by **traumatic implantation** of fungal spores into the skin. - Common sources include **thorns, splinters, sphagnum moss**, and other plant materials. *Enlarged lymph nodes extending centripetally as a beaded chain are a characteristic finding* - This statement is **true** and describes the classic **lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis**, where lesions and **nodular lymphangitis** track along lymphatic channels. - The "beaded chain" appearance refers to the multiple subcutaneous nodules formed along the lymphatic vessels. *Is a chronic mycotic disease that typically involves skin, subcutaneous tissue and regional lymphatics* - This statement is **true** because sporotrichosis is a **slow-progressing fungal infection** that primarily affects the skin, the tissue just beneath the skin, and the lymphatics draining the infected area. - While systemic dissemination can occur in immunocompromised individuals, the **cutaneous and lymphocutaneous forms** are most common.
Surgery
2 questionsWhich levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 451: Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
- A. I-IV
- B. I-V (Correct Answer)
- C. I-III
- D. II-VI
Explanation: ***I-V*** - A modified radical neck dissection typically removes lymph nodes from levels **I through V**, along with preservation of one or more non-lymphatic structures (sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, or spinal accessory nerve). - This extensive dissection addresses potential metastasis to these node groups from head and neck cancers, crucial for adequate oncologic clearance while aiming for functional preservation. *I-III* - This limited dissection would likely be insufficient for many head and neck cancers, as spread often extends beyond level III. - It would miss potential metastases in the lower jugular and posterior triangle nodes, increasing the risk of recurrence. *I-IV* - This dissection omits **level V**, which includes the posterior triangle nodes, a common site for metastatic spread, especially for cancers of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. - Excluding level V would be considered an incomplete radical or modified radical neck dissection in many clinical scenarios. *II-VI* - This option incorrectly excludes lymph nodes at **level I** (submental and submandibular nodes), which are critical draining sites for many oral cavity cancers. - Including level VI (anterior compartment nodes) is typically part of a central compartment neck dissection, often performed for thyroid cancer, but is usually not part of a standard modified radical neck dissection for other head and neck primaries unless specifically indicated.
Question 452: What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?
- A. National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast
- B. National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain
- C. National surgical adjuvant for breast project
- D. National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project*** - **NSABP** stands for **National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project**. - It is a prominent research organization focused on conducting clinical trials for the prevention and treatment of breast and colorectal cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for breast project* - This option is incomplete as it omits the "bowel" component of the organization's focus. - The NSABP's research scope extends beyond just breast cancer to include **colorectal cancer**. *National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "bowel" from the acronym. - The NSABP's primary research areas are **breast and bowel (colorectal) cancers**, not brain cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "breast" from the acronym. - The NSABP is known for its extensive work in both **breast and colorectal cancer research**.