Biochemistry
6 questionsWhat type of protein is keratin classified as?
Rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?
Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
Which type of DNA polymerase is responsible for the replication of mitochondrial DNA?
Which type of RNA contains codons for specific amino acids?
In eukaryotic cells, where does the majority of functional RNA activity occur?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: What type of protein is keratin classified as?
- A. Conjugated protein
- B. Globular protein
- C. Cylindrical protein
- D. Fibrous protein (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fibrous protein*** - **Keratin** is a structural protein characterized by its **elongated, filament-like structure**, which is typical of fibrous proteins. - Fibrous proteins like keratin provide **mechanical strength** and play a significant role in the structure of tissues such as skin, hair, and nails. - Other examples of fibrous proteins include collagen, elastin, and myosin. *Globular protein* - **Globular proteins** have a **compact, spherical shape** and are often water-soluble, serving functions like enzymes, transporters, or receptors (e.g., hemoglobin or albumin). - Keratin's primary role is structural, not catalytic or transport, and its shape is not compact or spherical. *Cylindrical protein* - While some proteins might have a somewhat elongated or tube-like structure, **"cylindrical protein" is not a standard biochemical classification** of protein type. - This term does not accurately describe the characteristic fibrous nature and function of keratin. *Conjugated protein* - **Conjugated proteins** contain a non-protein component (prosthetic group) such as a carbohydrate, lipid, or metal ion attached to the protein (e.g., glycoproteins, lipoproteins, hemoglobin). - Keratin is a **simple fibrous protein** composed only of amino acids without prosthetic groups, so it is not classified as a conjugated protein.
Question 422: Rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?
- A. Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase)
- B. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
- C. Dihydro-orotase
- D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase-II (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II)*** - **CPS-II** is the **committed and rate-limiting enzyme** in **de novo pyrimidine synthesis** in **mammals (including humans)** - It catalyzes the formation of **carbamoyl phosphate** from glutamine, CO₂, and 2 ATP in the **cytoplasm** - This is the **first committed step** and the main **regulatory checkpoint**, inhibited by UTP (feedback inhibition) and activated by PRPP and ATP - CPS-II is part of the **CAD complex** (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase, aspartate transcarbamoylase, dihydroorotase) in mammals *Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase)* - ATCase catalyzes the **second step**: condensation of carbamoyl phosphate with aspartate to form carbamoyl aspartate - While ATCase is the **rate-limiting step in bacteria** (E. coli), in **mammals** it is part of the CAD complex and **not the primary regulatory step** - This option is incorrect for human/mammalian biochemistry tested in NEET PG *Dihydro-orotase* - The **third enzyme** in the pathway, converting carbamoyl aspartate to dihydroorotate - Part of the CAD complex in mammals but **not the rate-limiting step** *Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase* - Catalyzes the **fourth step**: oxidation of dihydroorotate to orotate - Located on the **outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane** (only mitochondrial enzyme in the pathway) - Important enzyme but **not rate-limiting**
Question 423: Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
- A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
- B. UMP synthase (Correct Answer)
- C. Orotic acid decarboxylase
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***UMP synthase*** - Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is caused by a deficiency of the **bifunctional enzyme UMP synthase** (also called UMP synthase complex). - UMP synthase catalyzes two sequential reactions in the *de novo* pyrimidine synthesis pathway: 1. **OPRT activity**: Converts orotate → orotidine 5'-monophosphate (OMP) 2. **ODC activity**: Converts OMP → uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP) - This is the **most precise and complete answer** as it identifies the actual enzyme complex that is deficient. - **Clinical features**: Megaloblastic anemia, growth retardation, immunodeficiency; responds to oral uridine supplementation. *Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase* - This represents only **one of the two catalytic activities** of the UMP synthase enzyme (the first step). - While this activity is indeed deficient in Type-I orotic aciduria, naming only this activity is **incomplete** because the enzyme has two functions. - This would be a **partial answer** rather than the complete enzyme name. *Orotic acid decarboxylase* - This represents only **the second catalytic activity** of the UMP synthase enzyme (converts OMP to UMP). - Like OPRT, this activity is also deficient, but naming only this component is **incomplete**. - **Type II orotic aciduria** (extremely rare) involves isolated ODC deficiency without OPRT deficiency. *All of the options* - While technically both OPRT and ODC activities are affected in Type-I orotic aciduria, the **standard nomenclature** refers to the deficient enzyme as **"UMP synthase"** - the name of the complete bifunctional enzyme. - In medical terminology and examination context, we identify enzyme deficiencies by the **name of the enzyme complex**, not by listing all its individual catalytic activities. - Therefore, **"UMP synthase"** is the single most accurate and complete answer.
Question 424: Which type of DNA polymerase is responsible for the replication of mitochondrial DNA?
- A. DNA polymerase delta
- B. DNA polymerase alpha
- C. DNA polymerase gamma (Correct Answer)
- D. DNA polymerase beta
Explanation: ***DNA polymerase gamma*** - **DNA polymerase gamma** is the sole DNA polymerase responsible for replicating and repairing the mitochondrial DNA in eukaryotic cells. - It consists of a large catalytic subunit and two smaller accessory subunits that provide **proofreading** and processivity functions. *DNA polymerase alpha* - **DNA polymerase alpha** is primarily involved in initiating DNA replication on both the leading and lagging strands of nuclear DNA. - It forms a complex with **primase** to synthesize short RNA primers followed by a short stretch of DNA. *DNA polymerase delta* - **DNA polymerase delta** is a key enzyme in nuclear DNA replication, primarily responsible for the **elongation of the lagging strand**. - It also plays a significant role in various DNA repair pathways, including **nucleotide excision repair**. *DNA polymerase beta* - **DNA polymerase beta** is mainly involved in **DNA repair processes**, specifically **base excision repair (BER)** in the nucleus. - It has a low processivity and lacks **proofreading activity**, making it unsuitable for bulk DNA replication.
Question 425: Which type of RNA contains codons for specific amino acids?
- A. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
- B. Messenger RNA (mRNA) (Correct Answer)
- C. Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
- D. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
Explanation: ***Messenger RNA (mRNA)*** - **mRNA** carries the genetic information from **DNA** in the nucleus to the **ribosomes** in the cytoplasm. - This information is encoded in sequences of three nucleotides called **codons**, each specifying a particular amino acid. *Transfer RNA (tRNA)* - **tRNA** molecules are responsible for **carrying specific amino acids** to the ribosome during protein synthesis. - Each **tRNA** has an **anticodon** that base-pairs with a complementary **codon** on the **mRNA** strand. *Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)* - **snRNA** is primarily involved in **RNA splicing**, a process that removes introns from pre-mRNA. - It forms part of the **spliceosome** complex, which is crucial for mature mRNA formation but does not contain codons itself. *Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)* - **rRNA** is a major component of **ribosomes**, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. - While it plays a critical structural and catalytic role in translation, it does not carry genetic code in the form of codons.
Question 426: In eukaryotic cells, where does the majority of functional RNA activity occur?
- A. Nucleus
- B. Ribosome
- C. Cytoplasm (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Cytoplasm*** - The **cytoplasm** is the cellular compartment where the **majority of functional RNA activity** occurs, including **translation** (protein synthesis) involving mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA. - **Ribosomes** (the sites of translation) are located in the cytoplasm, either free-floating or bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. - Many types of **regulatory RNAs** such as microRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) exert their functions in the cytoplasm by targeting mRNAs for degradation or translational repression. - **mRNA degradation** and **RNA interference pathways** primarily operate in the cytoplasm. - The question asks for the broader location rather than the specific molecular machinery, making cytoplasm the most comprehensive answer. *Nucleus* - While RNA is **transcribed** from DNA and **processed** (capping, polyadenylation, splicing) in the nucleus, these are preparatory steps. - The nucleus is primarily the site of **RNA synthesis**, not where most RNA performs its functional roles. - Only a small fraction of functional RNA activity (like rRNA processing in the nucleolus) occurs here compared to the cytoplasm. *Ribosome* - While **ribosomes are the specific sites of translation** and are composed of rRNA and proteins, they represent molecular machinery rather than a cellular location. - Ribosomes themselves are located **within the cytoplasm**, making cytoplasm the more inclusive answer for where RNA activity occurs. - The question asks "where" in terms of cellular compartment, not which molecular complex. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as the cytoplasm is indeed the primary site where the majority of functional RNA activities occur in eukaryotic cells.
Pathology
3 questionsHurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?
Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?
In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?
- A. Medullary carcinoma
- B. Papillary carcinoma
- C. Follicular carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Anaplastic carcinoma
Explanation: **Follicular carcinoma** - **Hürthle cell carcinoma**, also known as **oxyphilic follicular carcinoma**, is a specific variant of **follicular carcinoma of the thyroid**. - It is characterized by the presence of large polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm known as **Hürthle cells** (or oxyphil cells) within the neoplastic growth. *Medullary carcinoma* - **Medullary carcinoma** originates from the **parafollicular C cells** of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - It is histologically distinct, featuring nests or cords of cells often associated with **amyloid deposits**, and is not related to Hürthle cell morphology. *Papillary carcinoma* - **Papillary carcinoma** is the most common type of thyroid cancer, characterized by distinctive **nuclear features** such as **Orphan Annie eye nuclei**, nuclear grooves, and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. - Its histological origin and morphological appearance are different from Hürthle cell neoplasms, which are follicular in origin. *Anaplastic carcinoma* - **Anaplastic carcinoma** is a highly aggressive and undifferentiated thyroid malignancy with a very poor prognosis. - It is characterized by pleomorphic, giant, and spindle cells and lacks the specific differentiation seen in follicular or Hürthle cell tumors.
Question 422: Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?
- A. Eosinophilic granuloma (Correct Answer)
- B. Letterer-siwe disease
- C. Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
- D. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
Explanation: ***Eosinophilic granuloma*** - This is a localized form of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis** that typically presents in the head and neck region, often affecting areas like the skull and mandible [1]. - Characterized by **bone lesions** and may present with **pain or swelling** in the affected area, making it a prominent form in children and young adults. *Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis* - Primarily affects the **lungs** and is associated with **cough, dyspnea**, and pulmonary nodules, not the head and neck region. - Occurs predominantly in **smokers** and involves interstitial lung disease patterns on imaging studies. *Hand-schuller-christian disease* - This condition is a systemic form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects multiple systems rather than being localized, commonly presenting with **diabetes insipidus** and bone lesions. - It is often associated with **exophthalmos** and may involve lymphadenopathy, affecting older children and adults, not localized head and neck involvement. *Letterer-siwe disease* - This represents the acute, disseminated form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis, affecting infants, and is marked by systemic symptoms like **fever**, **rash**, and **hepatosplenomegaly** [1]. - Typically presents with serious manifestations and not specifically localized in the **head and neck area** as seen in eosinophilic granuloma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 630.
Question 423: In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
- A. Goodpasture syndrome (linear IgG deposits in the basement membrane)
- B. MPGN type I (subendothelial deposits) (Correct Answer)
- C. MPGN type II (intramembranous deposits)
- D. IgA nephropathy (mesangial IgA deposits)
Explanation: ***MPGN type I*** - **Subendothelial deposits** are a hallmark of MPGN type I, often associated with **immune complex deposition** [1]. - This condition can present with **hematuria**, **proteinuria**, and can be triggered by infections or autoimmune diseases [1]. *Good pasture syndrome* - Primarily involves **anti-GBM antibodies** leading to **glomerulonephritis** and pulmonary hemorrhage, not subendothelial deposits. - Typically, it presents with **crescent formation** in the glomeruli rather than deposits. *MPGN type II* - Characterized by **dense deposit disease**, it features **intramembranous** rather than subendothelial deposits [1]. - It is often associated with **C3 nephritic factor** and does not show classic subendothelial pathology. *IgA nephropathy* - Characterized by **IgA deposits** primarily in the **mesangium**, not subendothelially. - It presents with **hematuria** and recurrent episodes of **macrohematuria**, especially after infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-927.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
- A. Acrolein
- B. Phenacetin
- C. Benzidine
- D. Isopropyl alcohol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Isopropyl alcohol*** - Research does not link **isopropyl alcohol** to an increased risk of bladder cancer, making it a non-carcinogenic substance in this context. - It is commonly used as a solvent and antiseptic, but has not shown **urogenic carcinogenicity** in studies. *Phenacetin* - **Phenacetin** is an analgesic that has been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly due to its metabolite, which can be nephrotoxic. - Its use has significantly declined due to its carcinogenic effects on the urinary system. *Benzidine* - **Benzidine** is a well-known bladder carcinogen, primarily linked to the dye industry, where exposure has led to increased rates of bladder cancer [1]. - This substance has been implicated in **urothelial carcinoma** due to its mutagenic properties. *Acrolein* - **Acrolein** is a toxic compound that can cause bladder irritation and has been studied for its potential carcinogenic effects related to bladder cancer. - It is released during the combustion of materials and is known to contribute to **chemical injury** in the bladder. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218.