Biochemistry
5 questionsWhich of the following statements about LDL is false?
Concentration of which is inversely related to the risk of coronary heart disease?
Apolipoprotein E is rich in
Catecholamines are synthesized from?
Which enzyme catalyzes oxidative deamination?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Which of the following statements about LDL is false?
- A. More dense than chylomicron
- B. Transports maximum amount of lipid (Correct Answer)
- C. Contains maximum cholesterol
- D. Smaller than VLDL
Explanation: ***Transports maximum amount of lipid*** - This statement is false because **chylomicrons**, not LDL, are primarily responsible for transporting the **maximum amount of dietary lipids** (triglycerides) from the intestines to various tissues. - While LDL does transport lipids, its primary role is to deliver **cholesterol** to cells, and it contains a lower proportion of triglyceride compared to chylomicrons and VLDL. *More dense than chylomicron* - This statement is true; **LDL is denser than chylomicrons** because it has a higher protein-to-lipid ratio. - **Chylomicrons** are the least dense lipoproteins due to their very high triglyceride content. *Smaller than VLDL* - This statement is true; **LDL is smaller than VLDL** (Very Low-Density Lipoprotein). - VLDL particles are larger and contain more triglycerides, which are gradually removed, leading to the formation of smaller LDL particles. *Contains maximum cholesterol* - This statement is true; **LDL contains the highest proportion of cholesterol** (specifically, **cholesterol esters**) among the lipoproteins. - This characteristic makes LDL the primary carrier for delivering cholesterol to peripheral tissues.
Question 412: Concentration of which is inversely related to the risk of coronary heart disease?
- A. VLDL
- B. LDL
- C. HDL (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***HDL*** - **High-density lipoprotein (HDL)** is known as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the arteries and transport it back to the liver for excretion. - Higher levels of HDL are generally associated with a **lower risk of coronary heart disease (CHD)**, hence the inverse relationship. *VLDL* - **Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)** carries triglycerides and cholesterol and is considered an independent risk factor for CHD when present in high concentrations. - High VLDL levels are associated with an **increased risk of CHD**, not an inverse relationship. *LDL* - **Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)** is often referred to as "bad cholesterol" because it contributes to plaque buildup in arteries (**atherosclerosis**). - High levels of LDL are strongly associated with an **increased risk of CHD**, indicating a direct, not inverse, relationship. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because HDL clearly demonstrates an **inverse relationship** with the risk of coronary heart disease.
Question 413: Apolipoprotein E is rich in
- A. Methionine
- B. Lysine
- C. Histidine
- D. Arginine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Arginine*** - **Apolipoprotein E (apoE)** is notably rich in **basic amino acids**, with **arginine** being particularly abundant. - The high content of **positively charged arginine residues** is critical for apoE's ability to bind to negatively charged lipid surfaces and interact with receptors such as the **LDL receptor** and **LDL receptor-related protein (LRP)**. - This arginine-rich composition is a defining characteristic of apoE and is essential for its role in **lipid metabolism** and **receptor-mediated lipoprotein uptake**. *Lysine* - While apoE does contain **lysine** (another basic amino acid), it is **arginine** that is particularly abundant and functionally emphasized. - Both lysine and arginine contribute positive charges, but **arginine residues** are specifically highlighted in apoE's **receptor binding domains** and are more characteristic of this apolipoprotein. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is also a **basic amino acid**, but it is not present in the same high proportions as **arginine** in apoE. - Its pKa (~6.0) is closer to physiological pH, meaning its charge state can vary, making it less consistently positive than arginine or lysine in biological contexts. - Histidine is not a defining feature of apoE's amino acid composition. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is a **sulfur-containing, nonpolar amino acid**, not a basic amino acid. - It does not contribute to the positive charge characteristic of apoE. - Its role in proteins is typically structural or as the initiator of protein synthesis (as the first amino acid), but it is not relevant to apoE's receptor-binding properties.
Question 414: Catecholamines are synthesized from?
- A. Tyrosine (Correct Answer)
- B. Histidine
- C. Methionine
- D. Tryptophan
Explanation: ***Tyrosine*** - **Tyrosine** is the direct precursor amino acid for the synthesis of all **catecholamines**, including **dopamine**, **norepinephrine**, and **epinephrine**. - The synthesis pathway begins with the conversion of tyrosine to **L-DOPA** by tyrosine hydroxylase, followed by subsequent enzymatic steps. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is an essential amino acid primarily involved in **protein synthesis** and as a precursor for S-adenosylmethionine (SAM), a key methyl donor in various metabolic reactions. - It is not a direct precursor for the synthesis of **catecholamines**. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is the precursor for the synthesis of **histamine**, a neurotransmitter and inflammatory mediator. - It is not involved in the biosynthesis pathway of **catecholamines**. *Tryptophan* - **Tryptophan** is the precursor for the synthesis of **serotonin** and **melatonin**, important neurotransmitters and hormones. - It does not play a role in the synthesis of **catecholamines**.
Question 415: Which enzyme catalyzes oxidative deamination?
- A. Glutaminase
- B. Glutamine synthase
- C. Glutamate dehydrogenase (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Glutamate dehydrogenase*** - This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of **glutamate** to **α-ketoglutarate** and ammonia (NH₃), which is an oxidative deamination reaction. - It utilizes **NAD⁺ or NADP⁺** as a coenzyme to remove hydrogen atoms during the oxidation process. - Plays a crucial role in both **amino acid catabolism** and anabolism. *Glutaminase* - This enzyme hydrolyzes **glutamine** to glutamate and ammonia, which is a **hydrolytic deamidation** reaction, not an oxidative deamination. - It does not involve the oxidation of the substrate or require NAD⁺/NADP⁺ as cofactors. *Glutamine synthase* - This enzyme synthesizes **glutamine** from glutamate and ammonia, using ATP, which is a **biosynthetic** reaction, not a catabolic deamination. - It is involved in **ammonia detoxification** and amino acid synthesis, functioning in the opposite direction of deamination. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **glutamate dehydrogenase** is a valid correct answer. - Glutamate dehydrogenase is the primary enzyme responsible for oxidative deamination in human metabolism.
Dental
1 questionsWhich subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
- A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M2
- B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M3
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M1
Explanation: ***M4*** - **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M4** is associated with **monocytic differentiation**, leading to gum hypertrophy due to infiltration of the gums by leukemic cells [1]. - Patients may present with **gingival bleeding**, pain, and swelling in addition to other systemic symptoms of leukemia. *M3* - Known as **acute promyelocytic leukemia**, it typically presents with **coagulopathy** and not gum hypertrophy [1]. - Characterized by **promyelocytes** with heavy granulation and the presence of **faggot cells** (auer rods) [1]. *M2* - Represents a **myeloblastic type** of acute leukemia but is less commonly associated with **gingival hyperplasia**. - Associated with **more typical myeloid features** and presents with **anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**. *M1* - This is a **minimally differentiated type** of acute myeloid leukemia with **myeloblasts** and no significant differentiating features like gum hypertrophy. - Often presents with **rapid onset of symptoms** related to bone marrow failure, rather than localized gum issues. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?
- A. Nerve deafness
- B. Glomerulonephritis
- C. Autosomal dominant (Correct Answer)
- D. X-linked
Explanation: ***Autosomal dominant*** - While there are rare autosomal dominant forms, the most common and classic presentation of **Alport's syndrome is X-linked recessive**, affecting males more severely. - This statement is incorrect because it implies that autosomal dominant inheritance is the primary or typical mode, which is not true for the majority of cases. *Nerve deafness* - **Sensorineural hearing loss**, particularly for high frequencies, is a common and characteristic extra-renal manifestation of Alport's syndrome. - This symptom typically progresses with age and is a key diagnostic feature. *Glomerulonephritis* - **Progressive glomerulonephritis** is the hallmark renal feature of Alport's syndrome, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and eventually end-stage renal disease. - It is caused by mutations in collagen type IV genes, which disrupt the integrity of the glomerular basement membrane. *X-linked* - The majority of Alport's syndrome cases (about 85%) are **X-linked recessive**, caused by mutations in the *COL4A5* gene located on the X chromosome. - This explains why males are more severely affected and typically present with earlier onset and more rapid progression of renal disease.
Pathology
2 questionsIn glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
- A. Goodpasture syndrome (linear IgG deposits in the basement membrane)
- B. MPGN type I (subendothelial deposits) (Correct Answer)
- C. MPGN type II (intramembranous deposits)
- D. IgA nephropathy (mesangial IgA deposits)
Explanation: ***MPGN type I*** - **Subendothelial deposits** are a hallmark of MPGN type I, often associated with **immune complex deposition** [1]. - This condition can present with **hematuria**, **proteinuria**, and can be triggered by infections or autoimmune diseases [1]. *Good pasture syndrome* - Primarily involves **anti-GBM antibodies** leading to **glomerulonephritis** and pulmonary hemorrhage, not subendothelial deposits. - Typically, it presents with **crescent formation** in the glomeruli rather than deposits. *MPGN type II* - Characterized by **dense deposit disease**, it features **intramembranous** rather than subendothelial deposits [1]. - It is often associated with **C3 nephritic factor** and does not show classic subendothelial pathology. *IgA nephropathy* - Characterized by **IgA deposits** primarily in the **mesangium**, not subendothelially. - It presents with **hematuria** and recurrent episodes of **macrohematuria**, especially after infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-927.
Question 412: Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?
- A. Medullary carcinoma
- B. Papillary carcinoma
- C. Follicular carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Anaplastic carcinoma
Explanation: **Follicular carcinoma** - **Hürthle cell carcinoma**, also known as **oxyphilic follicular carcinoma**, is a specific variant of **follicular carcinoma of the thyroid**. - It is characterized by the presence of large polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm known as **Hürthle cells** (or oxyphil cells) within the neoplastic growth. *Medullary carcinoma* - **Medullary carcinoma** originates from the **parafollicular C cells** of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - It is histologically distinct, featuring nests or cords of cells often associated with **amyloid deposits**, and is not related to Hürthle cell morphology. *Papillary carcinoma* - **Papillary carcinoma** is the most common type of thyroid cancer, characterized by distinctive **nuclear features** such as **Orphan Annie eye nuclei**, nuclear grooves, and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. - Its histological origin and morphological appearance are different from Hürthle cell neoplasms, which are follicular in origin. *Anaplastic carcinoma* - **Anaplastic carcinoma** is a highly aggressive and undifferentiated thyroid malignancy with a very poor prognosis. - It is characterized by pleomorphic, giant, and spindle cells and lacks the specific differentiation seen in follicular or Hürthle cell tumors.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Which of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
- A. Acrolein
- B. Phenacetin
- C. Benzidine
- D. Isopropyl alcohol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Isopropyl alcohol*** - Research does not link **isopropyl alcohol** to an increased risk of bladder cancer, making it a non-carcinogenic substance in this context. - It is commonly used as a solvent and antiseptic, but has not shown **urogenic carcinogenicity** in studies. *Phenacetin* - **Phenacetin** is an analgesic that has been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly due to its metabolite, which can be nephrotoxic. - Its use has significantly declined due to its carcinogenic effects on the urinary system. *Benzidine* - **Benzidine** is a well-known bladder carcinogen, primarily linked to the dye industry, where exposure has led to increased rates of bladder cancer [1]. - This substance has been implicated in **urothelial carcinoma** due to its mutagenic properties. *Acrolein* - **Acrolein** is a toxic compound that can cause bladder irritation and has been studied for its potential carcinogenic effects related to bladder cancer. - It is released during the combustion of materials and is known to contribute to **chemical injury** in the bladder. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218.