Anatomy
4 questionsWhat is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?
Which of the following statements about the mammary gland is false?
All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: What is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
- A. Ulnar nerve
- B. Radial nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Axillary nerve
- D. Median nerve
Explanation: ***Radial nerve*** - The **radial nerve** is considered the largest branch of the brachial plexus due to its extensive innervation of numerous muscles in the posterior compartment of the arm and forearm. - It arises from the **posterior cord** of the brachial plexus and innervates all the extensors of the arm and forearm, including the triceps brachii and supinator. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve is a significant branch, but it is **smaller** in cross-sectional area and muscular distribution compared to the radial nerve. - It mainly innervates muscles of the **hand** and some forearm flexors. *Median nerve* - The median nerve is a large and clinically important nerve, formed by contributions from both the **lateral and medial cords**, but it is generally *not* considered the largest in terms of overall bulk or number of muscular branches. - It primarily innervates the **flexor muscles of the forearm** and some muscles of the hand (thenar eminence). *Axillary nerve* - The axillary nerve is one of the **smaller** terminal branches of the brachial plexus. - It primarily innervates the **deltoid** and **teres minor muscles**, and a small area of skin over the shoulder.
Question 312: Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?
- A. Extensor Digitorum
- B. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (Correct Answer)
- C. Supinator
- D. Abductor Pollicis Longus
Explanation: Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis - The radial nerve travels in the spiral groove of the humerus and gives off branches in a specific sequence. - Proximal to the spiral groove: Branches to triceps and anconeus - Within/at the spiral groove: Branches to brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) - Just distal to the spiral groove: Branch to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) [1] - this is the first branch after exiting the spiral groove - More distally: The nerve divides into superficial and deep branches (posterior interosseous nerve) [1] - An injury just below the spiral groove would paralyze ECRB while sparing muscles innervated proximal to or within the groove (triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, ECRL). Supinator - The supinator is innervated by the deep branch of the radial nerve (posterior interosseous nerve), which branches off more distally in the proximal forearm. - This muscle would only be affected by injuries distal to the bifurcation of the radial nerve into superficial and deep branches, not by an injury just below the spiral groove. Extensor Digitorum - The extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve, which is a continuation of the deep branch [1]. - This innervation occurs significantly distal to the spiral groove in the posterior forearm compartment. - It would be affected by posterior interosseous nerve injuries, not by lesions just below the spiral groove. Abductor Pollicis Longus - The abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve in the distal forearm [1]. - This is the most distal of all the options and would only be affected by posterior interosseous nerve palsy, not by radial nerve injury at the spiral groove level [1].
Question 313: Which of the following statements about the mammary gland is false?
- A. Is a modified sweat gland
- B. Extends from 2nd to 6th rib vertically
- C. Supplied by internal mammary artery
- D. Nipple is supplied by 6th intercostal nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nipple is supplied by 6th intercostal nerve*** - The **nipple and areola** are primarily supplied by branches of the **4th intercostal nerve**. - The 6th intercostal nerve supplies the lower part of the breast and is not the primary innervation for the nipple. *Is a modified sweat gland* - The mammary gland, or breast, is indeed a **modified apocrine sweat gland**. - This embryological origin explains its glandular structure and function of milk production. *Extends from 2nd to 6th rib vertically* - The vertical extent of the mammary gland typically ranges from the **2nd to the 6th rib**. - This anatomical positioning is consistent with its location on the anterior thoracic wall. *Supplied by internal mammary artery* - The **internal mammary artery (internal thoracic artery)** is a major blood supply to the medial aspect of the breast [2]. - Other significant arteries include the lateral thoracic and thoracoacromial arteries for the lateral aspect. The mammary gland is embedded in subcutaneous fat, although fat is absent beneath the nipple and areola [1]. Mature resting breasts lie between the skin and the pectoralis major muscle, supported by Cooper's ligaments [3].
Question 314: All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Flexor digitorum profundus
- C. Biceps brachii (Correct Answer)
- D. Subscapularis
Explanation: ***Biceps brachii*** - The **biceps brachii** muscle is solely innervated by the **musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6, C7)**. - This muscle is a prime mover for forearm supination and elbow flexion and does not receive nerve supply from any other nerve. *Subscapularis* - The **subscapularis** muscle has a dual nerve supply from both the **upper and lower subscapular nerves (C5, C6)**. - This dual innervation ensures motor control of the subscapularis, which is an important medial rotator of the humerus. *Pectoralis major* - The **pectoralis major** muscle receives a dual nerve supply from both the **medial and lateral pectoral nerves** [1]. - The **lateral pectoral nerve** primarily supplies the clavicular head, while the **medial pectoral nerve** supplies both the sternocostal head and a portion of the clavicular head [1]. *Flexor digitorum profundus* - The **flexor digitorum profundus** muscle has a dual nerve supply from the **median nerve** (innervating the lateral half for digits 2 and 3) and the **ulnar nerve** (innervating the medial half for digits 4 and 5). - This dual innervation allows for independent or coordinated flexion of the distal phalanges of the fingers.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements is false regarding hereditary spherocytosis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Which of the following statements is false regarding hereditary spherocytosis?
- A. Defect in ankyrin
- B. Reticulocytosis
- C. Decreased MCHC (Correct Answer)
- D. Normal to increased MCV
Explanation: ***Decreased MCHC*** - Hereditary spherocytosis typically presents with an **increased MCHC** due to the spherocytes being more concentrated. - MCHC is a measure of the hemoglobin concentration in red blood cells, and in spherocytosis, this value is often elevated rather than decreased. *Defect in ankyrin* - This is a true statement; hereditary spherocytosis is associated with a defect in **ankyrin**, a protein that helps maintain the cell's membrane structure [2]. - Mutations in ankyrin lead to instability of the red blood cell membrane, resulting in spherocyte formation [2]. *Decreased MCV* - In hereditary spherocytosis, MCV is often **normal or slightly increased**, as it reflects the volume of red blood cells, which can be misinterpreted due to the presence of spherocytes. - Spherocytes are smaller cells, which can mistakenly suggest a falsely decreased MCV if not properly interpreted [1]. *Reticulocytosis* - This condition typically presents with **reticulocytosis** as a response to hemolysis, indicating the bone marrow is producing more red blood cells to compensate [1]. - The presence of reticulocytosis is a common finding in hereditary spherocytosis due to increased destruction of spherocytes. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 597-598. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 640-641.
Pharmacology
5 questionsWhich of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it
Which of the following is not a recognized use of alpha-2-agonists?
Which of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
Which urinary bladder spasmolytic has local anesthetic properties?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Which of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
- A. Dicyclomine (Correct Answer)
- B. Physostigmine
- C. Tropicamide
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Dicyclomine*** - **Dicyclomine** is an **anticholinergic** medication that works by blocking muscarinic receptors, thereby reducing smooth muscle spasm in the gastrointestinal tract. - It is commonly used to treat symptoms of **irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)**, such as abdominal pain and cramping. *Physostigmine* - **Physostigmine** is a **cholinesterase inhibitor** that increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft. - It is used to treat **anticholinergic poisoning** by reversing the effects of anticholinergic drugs, rather than acting as an antispasmodic itself. *Tropicamide* - **Tropicamide** is an **anticholinergic** agent primarily used as a **mydriatic** (pupil dilator) and **cycloplegic** (paralyzes the ciliary muscle) for ophthalmic examinations. - Its action is localized to the eye and it does not have significant systemic antispasmodic effects. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because one of the listed medications is indeed classified as an antispasmodic agent. - When "None of the options" appears as a choice, it should only be selected if all other options are clearly incorrect.
Question 312: Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it
- A. Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker
- B. Increases outflow of aqueous humor
- C. Produces no miosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Possesses membrane stabilizing activity
Explanation: ***Produces no miosis*** - Timolol, a **non-selective beta-blocker**, decreases intraocular pressure without affecting pupillary size. - This is a **key advantage** in glaucoma treatment as miosis (pupil constriction) can worsen vision, especially in patients with cataracts. - Unlike **miotics** (e.g., pilocarpine), timolol does not cause pupillary constriction, making it better tolerated. *Possesses membrane stabilizing activity* - While some beta-blockers possess **membrane-stabilizing activity** (local anesthetic effect), this property is not a primary reason for timolol's preference in glaucoma. - This action is more relevant in antiarrhythmic uses of beta-blockers due to its effect on cardiac action potentials. *Increases outflow of aqueous humor* - Timolol primarily reduces intraocular pressure by **decreasing the production of aqueous humor**, not by increasing its outflow. - Drugs like **pilocarpine** (a cholinergic agonist) or **prostaglandin analogs** increase outflow. *Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker* - Timolol is a **non-selective beta-blocker**, meaning it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. - Its non-selectivity is associated with systemic side effects (e.g., bronchospasm, bradycardia), and selective beta-blockers like **betaxolol** exist but are not the primary reason for timolol's preference in glaucoma.
Question 313: Which of the following is not a recognized use of alpha-2-agonists?
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Sedation
- D. Benign Hyperplasia of prostate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: Benign Hyperplasia of prostate*** - Alpha-2-agonists are **NOT** used to treat **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**; this condition is typically managed with **alpha-1-blockers** (e.g., tamsulosin, alfuzosin) or 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors. - Alpha-1-blockers relax the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow, which involves a different receptor mechanism than alpha-2-agonists. - Alpha-2-agonists would not provide therapeutic benefit for BPH. *Incorrect: Glaucoma* - Alpha-2-agonists (e.g., **brimonidine**, **apraclonidine**) **are** used to treat **glaucoma** by reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. - This action helps to **lower intraocular pressure**, a primary goal in glaucoma management. *Incorrect: Hypertension* - Central-acting alpha-2-agonists (e.g., **clonidine**, **methyldopa**) **are** used as **antihypertensive agents**. - They reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, leading to decreased heart rate, vasodilation, and consequently, **lower blood pressure**. *Incorrect: Sedation* - Alpha-2-agonists like **dexmedetomidine** and **clonidine** **are** commonly used for **sedation** in critically ill patients, especially in intensive care units. - They produce sedation, analgesia, and anxiolysis without causing significant respiratory depression, making them valuable in certain clinical settings.
Question 314: Which of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
- A. Timolol
- B. Atenolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Nadolol
- D. Propranolol
Explanation: ***Atenolol*** - **Atenolol** is a **second-generation beta blocker** characterized by its **cardioselectivity**, meaning it primarily blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart. - This selectively reduces heart rate and contractility with fewer respiratory side effects compared to non-selective agents. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker**, meaning it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. - Its non-selective action can cause significant bronchoconstriction, making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is also a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** commonly used in ophthalmic preparations for glaucoma. - It blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors and does not possess the cardioselectivity of second-generation agents. *Nadolol* - **Nadolol** is another **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** with a long duration of action due to its extensive plasma half-life. - Like other first-generation agents, it lacks cardioselectivity and blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
Question 315: Which urinary bladder spasmolytic has local anesthetic properties?
- A. Tamsulosin
- B. Terazosin
- C. Oxybutynin (Correct Answer)
- D. Yohimbine
Explanation: ***Oxybutynin*** - Possesses both **anticholinergic properties** (bladder smooth muscle relaxation) and **direct local anesthetic properties**, which contribute to its spasmolytic effect on the detrusor muscle. - The **local anesthetic action** directly reduces bladder detrusor muscle contractions, explaining its efficacy in treating urge incontinence and overactive bladder. - This dual mechanism makes it unique among bladder spasmolytics. *Tamsulosin* - Is an **alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker** used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. - Does **not have local anesthetic properties** and is not a bladder detrusor spasmolytic. *Terazosin* - Also an **alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker**, similar to tamsulosin, used for BPH and hypertension. - Acts via **vascular and prostatic smooth muscle relaxation**, without local anesthetic or bladder spasmolytic effects. *Yohimbine* - Is an **alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist** known for increasing sympathetic outflow. - Does **not have bladder spasmolytic effects** or local anesthetic properties.