Anatomy
6 questionsWhich muscle is not part of the superficial anterior compartment of the forearm?
Which of the following statements about the linea aspera is correct?
A person had injury to right upper limb, he is not able to extend fingers but able to extend wrist and elbow. Nerve injured is ?
Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?
What is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
Which muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: Which muscle is not part of the superficial anterior compartment of the forearm?
- A. FDS
- B. FCR
- C. Palmaris longus
- D. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Flexor pollicis longus (FPL)** - The **FPL** is located in the **deep anterior compartment** of the forearm, differentiating it from the superficial muscles [1]. - Its primary function is **flexion of the thumb's interphalangeal joint**, requiring a deeper anatomical position for mechanical advantage [1]. *FDS* - The **Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)** is a key muscle of the superficial anterior compartment, visible just beneath the skin and fascia. - It is responsible for **flexing the middle phalanges** of the medial four digits. *FCR* - The **Flexor carpi radialis (FCR)** is situated in the superficial anterior compartment, running obliquely across the forearm. - It functions in **flexion and abduction of the wrist**. *Palmaris longus* - The **Palmaris longus** is a superficial anterior compartment muscle, though it is absent in a significant portion of the population. - When present, its main action is **flexion of the wrist** and tightening of the palmar aponeurosis.
Question 272: Which of the following statements about the linea aspera is correct?
- A. Forms lateral border of femur
- B. Continues as gluteal tuberosity (Correct Answer)
- C. Forms medial border of femur
- D. None of the options
Explanation: Correct: Continues as gluteal tuberosity - The lateral lip of the linea aspera continues superiorly as the gluteal tuberosity (also called the gluteal ridge or line) - This anatomical continuation is a key feature of the femur's posterior surface - The gluteal tuberosity serves as the attachment site for the gluteus maximus muscle - The medial lip continues superiorly as the pectineal line (spiral line), which then joins the lesser trochanter Incorrect: Forms lateral border of femur - The linea aspera is located on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft, not on the lateral border - The lateral border of the femur is formed by the smooth lateral surface of the shaft - The linea aspera's lateral lip is a posterior ridge, distinct from the true lateral border Incorrect: Forms medial border of femur - The linea aspera is on the posterior aspect of the femur, not the medial border - The medial border of the femur is formed by the smooth medial surface of the shaft - The medial lip of the linea aspera is a muscle attachment site on the posterior surface, not a border
Question 273: A person had injury to right upper limb, he is not able to extend fingers but able to extend wrist and elbow. Nerve injured is ?
- A. Median
- B. Ulnar
- C. Radial
- D. Posterior interosseous (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Posterior interosseous*** - This nerve supplies the muscles responsible for **finger extension**, such as the **extensor digitorum**, **extensor indicis**, and **extensor digiti minimi**. - A lesion here would spare wrist and elbow extension because the nerves to the **extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis** and **triceps brachii** branch off the radial nerve proximal to the origin of the posterior interosseous nerve. *Radial* - A more proximal **radial nerve injury** would result in the inability to extend the wrist (leading to **wrist drop**), fingers, and thumb, which is not seen here as wrist extension is preserved. - It also innervates the **triceps brachii**, and a high radial nerve injury would affect elbow extension; this patient can extend their elbow. *Median* - The **median nerve** primarily innervates muscles responsible for **flexion** of the wrist and fingers, as well as **thumb opposition** and **pronation**. - Its injury would not directly lead to an inability to extend the fingers, but rather weakness in flexion and specific thumb movements. *Ulnar* - The **ulnar nerve** innervates most of the **intrinsic hand muscles** and the **flexor carpi ulnaris**, leading to weakness in finger abduction/adduction and flexion of the 4th and 5th digits. - It does not control finger extension, so an injury would not cause this specific deficit.
Question 274: Which muscle will be paralyzed when the radial nerve is injured just below the spiral groove?
- A. Extensor Digitorum
- B. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (Correct Answer)
- C. Supinator
- D. Abductor Pollicis Longus
Explanation: Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis - The radial nerve travels in the spiral groove of the humerus and gives off branches in a specific sequence. - Proximal to the spiral groove: Branches to triceps and anconeus - Within/at the spiral groove: Branches to brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) - Just distal to the spiral groove: Branch to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) [1] - this is the first branch after exiting the spiral groove - More distally: The nerve divides into superficial and deep branches (posterior interosseous nerve) [1] - An injury just below the spiral groove would paralyze ECRB while sparing muscles innervated proximal to or within the groove (triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, ECRL). Supinator - The supinator is innervated by the deep branch of the radial nerve (posterior interosseous nerve), which branches off more distally in the proximal forearm. - This muscle would only be affected by injuries distal to the bifurcation of the radial nerve into superficial and deep branches, not by an injury just below the spiral groove. Extensor Digitorum - The extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve, which is a continuation of the deep branch [1]. - This innervation occurs significantly distal to the spiral groove in the posterior forearm compartment. - It would be affected by posterior interosseous nerve injuries, not by lesions just below the spiral groove. Abductor Pollicis Longus - The abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve in the distal forearm [1]. - This is the most distal of all the options and would only be affected by posterior interosseous nerve palsy, not by radial nerve injury at the spiral groove level [1].
Question 275: What is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
- A. Ulnar nerve
- B. Radial nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Axillary nerve
- D. Median nerve
Explanation: ***Radial nerve*** - The **radial nerve** is considered the largest branch of the brachial plexus due to its extensive innervation of numerous muscles in the posterior compartment of the arm and forearm. - It arises from the **posterior cord** of the brachial plexus and innervates all the extensors of the arm and forearm, including the triceps brachii and supinator. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve is a significant branch, but it is **smaller** in cross-sectional area and muscular distribution compared to the radial nerve. - It mainly innervates muscles of the **hand** and some forearm flexors. *Median nerve* - The median nerve is a large and clinically important nerve, formed by contributions from both the **lateral and medial cords**, but it is generally *not* considered the largest in terms of overall bulk or number of muscular branches. - It primarily innervates the **flexor muscles of the forearm** and some muscles of the hand (thenar eminence). *Axillary nerve* - The axillary nerve is one of the **smaller** terminal branches of the brachial plexus. - It primarily innervates the **deltoid** and **teres minor muscles**, and a small area of skin over the shoulder.
Question 276: Which muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
- A. Both FCU and FDP (Correct Answer)
- B. FCU
- C. None of the options
- D. FDP
Explanation: ***Both FCU and FDP*** - The **flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)** is solely innervated by the **ulnar nerve** in the forearm. - The **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)** has dual innervation: the **ulnar nerve** supplies the medial half (tendons to ring and little fingers), while the anterior interosseous nerve (branch of median nerve) supplies the lateral half (tendons to index and middle fingers). - Both muscles receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve, making this the most complete and accurate answer. *FCU* - While the FCU does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve (and only the ulnar nerve), this option is incorrect because the FDP also receives branches from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FCU ignores the dual innervation of FDP and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *FDP* - While the medial half of FDP does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve, this option is incorrect because FCU also receives innervation from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FDP ignores the complete innervation of FCU and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because both the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and the medial portion of the **flexor digitorum profundus** definitively receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve. - The ulnar nerve provides motor innervation to these specific forearm muscles before continuing into the hand.
Pharmacology
4 questionsWhich of the following statements about clonidine is incorrect?
Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?
In the context of pharmacology, which plasma protein do acidic drugs primarily bind to?
What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: Which of the following statements about clonidine is incorrect?
- A. Alpha 2 receptor agonist
- B. Sudden withdrawal causes rebound hypertension
- C. Controls loose motions due to diabetic neuropathy
- D. First line for AMI (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***First line for AMI*** - Clonidine is **not first-line** for **Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)** as it can cause **bradycardia** and **hypotension**, potentially worsening cardiac output. - First-line AMI treatments include **thrombolytics**, **antiplatelet agents** (aspirin), **beta-blockers**, and **ACE inhibitors** for optimal cardiac protection. *Alpha 2 receptor agonist* - Clonidine is indeed an **alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist** that acts centrally in the **medulla oblongata**. - It reduces **sympathetic outflow** from the CNS, leading to decreased **heart rate**, **blood pressure**, and **peripheral vascular resistance**. *Sudden withdrawal causes rebound hypertension* - Abrupt clonidine discontinuation causes dangerous **rebound hypertension** due to sudden loss of **sympathetic inhibition**. - **Gradual tapering** over 1-2 weeks is essential to prevent this potentially life-threatening complication. *Controls loose motions due to diabetic neuropathy* - Clonidine effectively treats **diabetic diarrhea** by stimulating **alpha-2 receptors** in the enteric nervous system. - It **slows intestinal transit** and **enhances fluid absorption**, making it useful for **autonomic neuropathy-related** gastrointestinal symptoms.
Question 272: Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?
- A. Warfarin (Correct Answer)
- B. Verapamil
- C. Aspirin
- D. GTN
Explanation: ***Warfarin*** - **Warfarin** exhibits very **high plasma protein binding**, typically greater than 99%, primarily to albumin. - This high binding capacity means that only a small fraction of the drug is free and pharmacologically active. - Due to high protein binding, warfarin is susceptible to drug interactions when displaced from albumin. *Verapamil* - **Verapamil** has a relatively high plasma protein binding, around 90%, but it is not as high as warfarin. - Its binding is predominantly to **albumin** and alpha-1-acid glycoprotein. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** (acetylsalicylic acid) has moderate plasma protein binding, usually between 50-90%, depending on the dosage. - It binds to **albumin** and can displace other protein-bound drugs. *GTN* - **Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)** has moderate plasma protein binding, approximately 60%. - Its rapid onset and short duration of action are primarily due to its extensive first-pass metabolism and quick redistribution, rather than protein binding characteristics.
Question 273: In the context of pharmacology, which plasma protein do acidic drugs primarily bind to?
- A. Globulin
- B. Albumin (Correct Answer)
- C. α1-acid glycoprotein
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Albumin*** - **Albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein and has multiple binding sites for a wide range of drugs, particularly **acidic drugs**. - Its high concentration and diverse binding capabilities make it the primary transporter for many **lipophilic** and **anionic drugs**. *Globulin* - **Globulins** are a diverse group of proteins, some of which bind to drugs, but they primarily transport **hormones**, **metals**, and **vitamins**, not acidic drugs. - They are less significant for binding acidic drugs compared to albumin. *α1-acid glycoprotein* - **α1-acid glycoprotein** primarily binds to **basic drugs** due to its numerous acidic residues. - While it plays a crucial role in binding basic compounds, it has limited affinity for acidic drugs. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **albumin** is a well-established and significant plasma protein for binding acidic drugs. - Specific plasma proteins are known to bind different types of drugs, and for acidic drugs, albumin is the primary binder.
Question 274: What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?
- A. First pass kinetics
- B. First order kinetics
- C. Zero order kinetics (Correct Answer)
- D. Second order kinetics
Explanation: ***Zero order kinetics*** - This mechanism occurs when the **metabolic enzymes become saturated at high drug concentrations**, leading to a constant amount (not a constant percentage) of drug being eliminated per unit time. - Alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin are examples of drugs that exhibit **saturable metabolism**, transitioning from first-order to zero-order kinetics at higher doses. *First pass kinetics* - This describes the **metabolism of a drug by the liver or gut wall enzymes before it reaches systemic circulation** after oral administration. - While relevant to the oral bioavailability of these drugs, it does not describe the specific mechanism of elimination at high doses. *First order kinetics* - In this mechanism, a **constant fraction or percentage of the drug is eliminated per unit of time**, meaning the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration. - Most drugs follow first-order kinetics at therapeutic doses because metabolizing enzymes are not saturated. *Second order kinetics* - This is a **less common pharmacokinetic model** where the rate of elimination is proportional to the square of the drug concentration or involves two reactants. - It does not typically describe the common elimination patterns of most drugs, including alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin.