Anatomy
1 questionsAll of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Flexor digitorum profundus
- C. Biceps brachii (Correct Answer)
- D. Subscapularis
Explanation: ***Biceps brachii*** - The **biceps brachii** muscle is solely innervated by the **musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6, C7)**. - This muscle is a prime mover for forearm supination and elbow flexion and does not receive nerve supply from any other nerve. *Subscapularis* - The **subscapularis** muscle has a dual nerve supply from both the **upper and lower subscapular nerves (C5, C6)**. - This dual innervation ensures motor control of the subscapularis, which is an important medial rotator of the humerus. *Pectoralis major* - The **pectoralis major** muscle receives a dual nerve supply from both the **medial and lateral pectoral nerves** [1]. - The **lateral pectoral nerve** primarily supplies the clavicular head, while the **medial pectoral nerve** supplies both the sternocostal head and a portion of the clavicular head [1]. *Flexor digitorum profundus* - The **flexor digitorum profundus** muscle has a dual nerve supply from the **median nerve** (innervating the lateral half for digits 2 and 3) and the **ulnar nerve** (innervating the medial half for digits 4 and 5). - This dual innervation allows for independent or coordinated flexion of the distal phalanges of the fingers.
Pathology
2 questionsWhat is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: What is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
- A. Megaloblastic cells
- B. Microcytic cells
- C. Thrombocytosis
- D. Dry tap (hypocellular) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dry tap (hypocellular)*** - In myelofibrosis, the bone marrow is often **hypocellular** due to fibrosis [1][2], leading to a **dry tap** during aspiration. - The presence of **reticulin** and collagen deposition replaces normal hematopoietic cells [2], resulting in ineffective hematopoiesis. *Thrombocytosis* - Myelofibrosis typically leads to **thrombocytopenia**, not thrombocytosis, due to ineffective megakaryopoiesis and splenic sequestration. - Though elevated platelets can occur, they are generally a **secondary response** to the disease and not a hallmark finding. *Megaloblastic cells* - Megaloblastic changes are associated with **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiencies**, which do not occur in myelofibrosis. - In myelofibrosis, the predominant issue is **marrow fibrosis** [1][2], which does not lead to megaloblastosis. *Microcytic cells* - Microcytic cells are commonly linked to **iron deficiency anemia**, not myelofibrosis. - Myelofibrosis typically results in **variable red cell morphology** [1], but microcytic anemia is not a primary characteristic. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 628-629. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 615-616.
Question 242: MALT lymphoma is positive for which of the following markers?
- A. CD20 (Correct Answer)
- B. CD19
- C. CD43
- D. CD5
Explanation: ***CD20*** - MALT lymphoma is a type of **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**, and CD20 is a **pan B-cell marker consistently expressed** in MALT lymphomas. - CD20 positivity is **crucial for diagnosis** and is the **primary therapeutic target** for anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody therapy (Rituximab). - In diagnostic practice, **CD20 is the most important B-cell marker** for identifying MALT lymphoma and guiding treatment decisions. *CD19* - CD19 is also a **pan B-cell marker** and is **typically positive in MALT lymphoma** along with CD20. - However, in the context of this question, **CD20 is the preferred answer** because it is the **standard diagnostic marker emphasized in clinical practice** and the **primary therapeutic target**. - Both markers are positive, but CD20 has greater **clinical and therapeutic significance** in MALT lymphoma management. *CD43* - CD43 is primarily a **T-cell and myeloid marker**, but can show **aberrant expression in 40-50% of MALT lymphomas**. - While it may be positive in some cases, it is **not a defining B-cell lineage marker** and is not used as a primary diagnostic criterion for MALT lymphoma. - Its variable expression makes it **less reliable** than consistent B-cell markers like CD20. *CD5* - CD5 is typically associated with **T-cells** and certain B-cell lymphomas, particularly **chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL)** and **mantle cell lymphoma**. - **MALT lymphoma is characteristically CD5-negative**, which is an important feature for **differentiating it from CD5+ B-cell lymphomas**.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhich antiglaucomatous drug is known to cause spasm of accommodation?
Which of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: Which antiglaucomatous drug is known to cause spasm of accommodation?
- A. Timolol
- B. Pilocarpine (Correct Answer)
- C. Dorzolamide
- D. Latanoprost
Explanation: ***Pilocarpine*** - **Pilocarpine** is a **direct-acting muscarinic agonist** that contracts the **ciliary muscle**. - Contraction of the ciliary muscle leads to **accommodation spasm** and a forward movement of the **iris-lens diaphragm**, which also helps to open the **trabecular meshwork**, facilitating aqueous outflow. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **beta-blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors on the ciliary epithelium. - It does not directly affect the **ciliary muscle** or cause accommodation spasm. *Dorazolamide* - **Dorzolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that reduces aqueous humor production. - Its mechanism of action does not involve the ciliary body's mechanical action and therefore does not cause **accommodation spasm**. *Latanoprost* - **Latanoprost** is a **prostaglandin analog** that increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor. - It does not directly affect the ciliary muscle's contraction or cause **accommodation spasm**.
Question 242: Which of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
- A. Dicyclomine (Correct Answer)
- B. Physostigmine
- C. Tropicamide
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Dicyclomine*** - **Dicyclomine** is an **anticholinergic** medication that works by blocking muscarinic receptors, thereby reducing smooth muscle spasm in the gastrointestinal tract. - It is commonly used to treat symptoms of **irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)**, such as abdominal pain and cramping. *Physostigmine* - **Physostigmine** is a **cholinesterase inhibitor** that increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft. - It is used to treat **anticholinergic poisoning** by reversing the effects of anticholinergic drugs, rather than acting as an antispasmodic itself. *Tropicamide* - **Tropicamide** is an **anticholinergic** agent primarily used as a **mydriatic** (pupil dilator) and **cycloplegic** (paralyzes the ciliary muscle) for ophthalmic examinations. - Its action is localized to the eye and it does not have significant systemic antispasmodic effects. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because one of the listed medications is indeed classified as an antispasmodic agent. - When "None of the options" appears as a choice, it should only be selected if all other options are clearly incorrect.
Question 243: Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
- A. Atenolol
- B. Metoprolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Esmolol
- D. Bisoprolol
Explanation: ***Metoprolol*** - **Metoprolol succinate** (extended-release formulation) is a selective **beta-1 antagonist** proven to reduce mortality and hospitalizations in **chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)**. - It works by **reducing heart rate, myocardial oxygen demand**, and preventing adverse cardiac remodeling through inhibition of chronic sympathetic activation. - Along with **bisoprolol and carvedilol**, it is one of the **three beta-blockers with proven mortality benefit** in heart failure trials. *Atenolol* - While atenolol is a selective beta-1 antagonist, it **lacks evidence for mortality benefit** in heart failure. - It has **high hydrophilicity** and renal elimination, leading to less favorable pharmacokinetics compared to metoprolol. - More commonly used for **hypertension and angina** rather than heart failure management. *Esmolol* - **Esmolol** is an ultra-short-acting selective beta-1 antagonist used for **acute control of heart rate** in perioperative and critical care settings. - Its **very short half-life (9 minutes)** makes it unsuitable for chronic management of heart failure. - Administered only **intravenously** and requires continuous infusion. *Bisoprolol* - While **bisoprolol is also approved** for heart failure and has proven mortality benefit (CIBIS-II trial), this question likely expects **metoprolol** as the answer given the historical context. - Both bisoprolol and metoprolol are acceptable answers, but **metoprolol** has been more widely studied and is more commonly cited in Indian medical exams. - Bisoprolol has **greater beta-1 selectivity** than metoprolol but similar clinical outcomes in heart failure.
Physiology
4 questionsWhich of the following does not have sympathetic noradrenergic fibers?
All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?
Normal renal threshold for glucose is at plasma glucose level ?
What is the primary solute responsible for the hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: Which of the following does not have sympathetic noradrenergic fibers?
- A. Heart
- B. Eye
- C. Sweat gland (Correct Answer)
- D. Blood vessels
Explanation: ***Sweat gland*** - While sweat glands are innervated by the **sympathetic nervous system**, their postganglionic fibers are **cholinergic**, releasing **acetylcholine** rather than noradrenaline. - This is an important exception where sympathetic stimulation leads to acetylcholine release, causing sweating. *Blood vessels* - Most blood vessels, particularly resistance vessels such as **arterioles**, receive substantial **sympathetic noradrenergic innervation** that causes vasoconstriction. - This sympathetic tone is crucial for regulating **blood pressure** and distributing blood flow. *Heart* - The heart is richly innervated by **sympathetic noradrenergic fibers** that increase **heart rate**, **contractility**, and **conduction velocity** via beta-1 adrenergic receptors. - This makes noradrenaline a key neurotransmitter in the sympathetic regulation of cardiac function. *Eye* - The eye receives sympathetic noradrenergic innervation primarily to the **dilator pupillae muscle**, causing **mydriasis** (pupil dilation) upon activation. - These fibers also contribute to the sympathetic control of the **tarsal muscle** (Müller's muscle) in the eyelid.
Question 242: All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?
- A. Freely reabsorbed (Correct Answer)
- B. Not secreted by kidney
- C. Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Freely reabsorbed*** - A substance used to measure GFR should **not be reabsorbed** by the kidney tubules. If it were reabsorbed, the amount excreted in the urine would be less than the amount filtered, leading to an **underestimation of GFR**. - The ideal GFR marker is **neither reabsorbed nor secreted**, ensuring that its excretion rate directly reflects the filtration rate. *Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane* - For a substance to accurately measure GFR, it must be **freely filtered** from the blood into the Bowman's capsule, without any restriction due to its size or charge. - This ensures that its concentration in the glomerular filtrate is the same as in the plasma, allowing for a direct calculation of the filtration rate. *Not secreted by kidney* - An ideal GFR marker should **not be secreted** by the renal tubules, as active secretion would add to the amount excreted in the urine, leading to an **overestimation of GFR**. - This property, along with not being reabsorbed, ensures that the amount of the substance appearing in the urine solely reflects the amount filtered. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a definitive feature listed among the choices that is *not* a characteristic of an ideal GFR marker. The ability to be "freely reabsorbed" is a disqualifying trait.
Question 243: Normal renal threshold for glucose is at plasma glucose level ?
- A. 100 mg/dl
- B. 200 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
- C. 300 mg/dl
- D. 400 mg/dl
Explanation: ** _200 mg/dl_ ** - The **renal threshold for glucose** represents the plasma glucose concentration at which the kidneys begin to excrete glucose into the urine. - This typically occurs when the glucose level exceeds the reabsorptive capacity of the renal tubules, usually around **180-200 mg/dL**. * _100 mg/dl_ * - A plasma glucose level of **100 mg/dL** is within the normal fasting range and well below the renal threshold. - At this level, virtually all filtered glucose is reabsorbed by the renal tubules, and no glucose appears in the urine. * _300 mg/dl_ * - A plasma glucose level of **300 mg/dL** is significantly above the renal threshold for glucose. - At this concentration, the kidney's reabsorptive capacity is overwhelmed, leading to substantial **glucosuria** (glucose in the urine). * _400 mg/dl_ * - A plasma glucose level of **400 mg/dL** is severely elevated and far exceeds the renal threshold. - This level would result in significant glucose excretion in the urine and is indicative of uncontrolled hyperglycemia, as seen in **diabetes mellitus**.
Question 244: What is the primary solute responsible for the hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla?
- A. urea
- B. K
- C. Na (Correct Answer)
- D. Cl
Explanation: ***Na*** - **Sodium (Na+), along with chloride**, is the primary solute responsible for establishing the **corticomedullary osmotic gradient** in the renal medulla. - Actively reabsorbed in the **thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle** via the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter, creating hyperosmolarity in the outer medulla. - NaCl accounts for the majority of osmolality in the **outer medulla** and provides the foundation for the countercurrent multiplication system. - While **urea contributes significantly to inner medullary hyperosmolarity** (especially during antidiuresis), **sodium chloride** is considered the **primary driving force** for the overall medullary concentration gradient. *K* - **Potassium (K+)** is primarily involved in maintaining intracellular fluid balance and cellular membrane potentials. - While K+ is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle (via Na-K-2Cl cotransporter), it does not accumulate in the medullary interstitium to contribute significantly to hyperosmolarity. *urea* - **Urea** contributes substantially to hyperosmolarity, particularly in the **inner medulla** (accounting for ~40-50% of inner medullary osmolality). - Through **urea recycling** (collecting duct → medullary interstitium → thin limbs), it enhances urinary concentration, especially during water deprivation. - However, the **initial establishment** of the osmotic gradient depends on **NaCl reabsorption** in the ascending limb, making sodium the primary solute. *Cl* - **Chloride (Cl-)** is reabsorbed together with sodium via the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb. - Functionally, **NaCl works as a unit** to create medullary hyperosmolarity, so chloride and sodium are inseparable in this process. - Among the listed options, **sodium** represents this NaCl contribution as the cation driving active transport.