NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements regarding axillary lymph nodes is incorrect?

Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels. ***Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels*** - The **lateral group** of axillary lymph nodes is located along the **axillary vein**, receiving lymph primarily from the upper limb [1]. - The **lateral thoracic vessels** are associated with the central and posterior groups of axillary lymph nodes, not the lateral group. *Posterior group lies along subscapular vessels* - The **posterior (subscapular) group** of axillary lymph nodes is indeed located along the **subscapular vessels**. - This group receives lymph from the posterior wall of the trunk and the posterior shoulder region. *Apical group is terminal lymph nodes* - The **apical group** (also known as the subclavian group) is considered the **terminal lymph nodes** of the axilla. - Lymph from all other axillary nodes eventually drains into the apical group before continuing to the supraclavicular nodes and then into the subclavian lymphatic trunk [2]. *Apical group lies along axillary vessels* - The **apical group** of axillary lymph nodes is situated in the apex of the axilla, superior to the pectoralis minor muscle, and lies in close proximity to the **axillary vessels** [1]. - This location allows it to receive lymph from other axillary groups and drain into the supraclavicular lymph nodes.

Q: How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

3. ***3*** - The distal end of the humerus develops **three primary ossification centers**: the capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle [1]. - These centers appear sequentially and their ossification pattern is important for assessing **skeletal maturity** in children using the CRITOE mnemonic [1]. - The capitellum appears at 1 year, medial epicondyle at 5 years, and trochlea at 9 years. *2* - This number is too low and only accounts for the **capitellum and medial epicondyle**, missing the trochlea. - While these are the first two to appear, there is an additional primary ossification center (trochlea) that develops later. *5* - This number is incorrect; there are only **three primary ossification centers** at the distal humerus, not five. - This may cause confusion with other joints or by counting secondary ossification centers. *4* - This number is incorrect; while the lateral epicondyle does ossify, it is not consistently counted as a **primary ossification center**. - The standard anatomical teaching recognizes **three primary centers**: capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle.

Q: Which of the following is a cerebellar nucleus?

Fastigial nucleus. ***Fastigial nucleus*** - The **fastigial nucleus** is one of the four principal deep cerebellar nuclei, involved in regulating **balance** and **posture** [2]. - The deep cerebellar nuclei are crucial for the cerebellum's output, relaying processed information to other brain regions [2]. *Caudate nucleus* - The **caudate nucleus** is part of the **basal ganglia**, a group of subcortical nuclei in the forebrain [1]. - It plays a significant role in **motor control**, learning, memory, and reward processing. *Subthalamic nucleus* - The **subthalamic nucleus** is a small nucleus located in the **diencephalon**, below the thalamus and above the substantia nigra [1]. - It is also part of the **basal ganglia system** and is critical for modulating motor control [1]. *Putamen* - The **putamen** is another structure belonging to the **basal ganglia**, located in the forebrain [1]. - It is primarily involved in regulating various types of **motor behavior** and learning.

Q: All are supplied by the anterior interosseous nerve except which of the following?

Flexor carpi ulnaris. ***Flexor carpi ulnaris*** - The **flexor carpi ulnaris** (FCU) is innervated by the **ulnar nerve**, not the anterior interosseous nerve [1]. - This is the correct answer as it is NOT supplied by the AIN. *Pronator quadratus* - The **pronator quadratus** IS supplied by the **anterior interosseous nerve**. - This deep muscle is responsible for **pronation of the forearm** and is one of the three muscles innervated by the AIN. *Flexor digitorum profundus (lateral half)* - The **lateral half of flexor digitorum profundus** (to index and middle fingers) IS supplied by the **anterior interosseous nerve**. - The medial half (to ring and little fingers) is supplied by the ulnar nerve. *Flexor pollicis longus* - The **flexor pollicis longus** (FPL) IS supplied by the **anterior interosseous nerve**. - This muscle is responsible for **flexion of the thumb's interphalangeal joint** and is one of the three muscles innervated by the AIN.

Q: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Hemolysis. ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.

Q: In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?

Myelodysplastic syndrome. ***Mylodysplastic syndrome*** - Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are characteristic and often observed in myelodysplastic syndromes, indicating an ineffective hematopoiesis [1]. - These cells appear as **hyposegmented neutrophils** and are associated with dysplastic changes in the bone marrow [1]. *Hairy cell leukemia* - Typically presents with **hairy cells** in peripheral blood and often involves splenomegaly; pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are not usual in this condition. - Associated with **PANCYTOPENIA** and reticulin fibrosis, differing from myelodysplastic syndrome. *Hodgkin's lymphoma* - Characterized by the presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** and typically involves lymphadenopathy. - Peripheral blood findings generally do not include pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells; the focus is on lymphatic tissue. *Multiple myeloma* - Commonly presents with **plasma cells** and related symptoms like bone pain and renal failure, not associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells. - It primarily causes an increase in monoclonal proteins rather than dysplastic changes seen in myelodysplastic syndrome. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 613-614.

Q: Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?

Ringed sideroblasts are associated with sickle cell anemia.. ***Ringed sideroblast*** - **Ringed sideroblasts** are not typically associated with sickle cell anemia; they are indicative of disorders like **sideroblastic anemia**. - In sickle cell anemia, the primary findings include **hemolysis** and ineffective erythropoiesis, not ringed sideroblasts [3]. *Howell jolly bodies* - These bodies are remnants of nuclear material and can be found in individuals with **spleen dysfunction**, which can occur in sickle cell anemia [1]. - They are actually a common finding due to **hyposplenism** or **asplenia** in patients with sickle cell disease [2]. *Sickle cells* - The presence of **sickle-shaped red blood cells** is a hallmark of sickle cell anemia, caused by the mutation in the **beta-globin chain** [3]. - These sickle cells are responsible for the characteristic complications of the disease, such as **vaso-occlusive crises** [1][3]. *Target cells* - Target cells, or **codocytes**, are often seen in disorders like **thalassemia** and liver disease, and can also be present in sickle cell anemia. - They are formed due to an increase in the **surface area to volume ratio** of red blood cells, often secondary to **membrane abnormalities** seen in sickle cell changes [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 644-646. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 570-571. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 598-599.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding light microscopy findings in minimal change disease?

No significant changes are seen under light microscopy.. ***No change seen*** - In minimal change disease, **light microscopy** typically shows no significant changes, which is a key characteristic of the condition [1]. - The disease primarily affects the **podocytes** leading to **nephrotic syndrome**, while light microscopy does not reveal any abnormalities [1]. *Loss of foot process seen* - Loss of foot processes is actually observed under **electron microscopy**, not light microscopy. - Light microscopy remains normal, differentiating minimal change disease from other glomerular diseases. *IgA deposits seen* - IgA deposits are associated with **IgA nephropathy**, which is a different condition characterized by mesangial deposition. - Minimal change disease does not have **immunofluorescence** findings, and thus shows no such deposits on light microscopy [1]. *Anti GBM Abs seen* - Anti-GBM antibodies are characteristic of **Goodpasture syndrome**, which presents with significant changes in glomerular structure. - In minimal change disease, there are no **anti-GBM antibodies** or major changes visible under light microscopy. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 927-928.

Q: Spinal pathway mainly regulating fine motor activity?

Lateral corticospinal tract. ***Lateral corticospinal tract*** - This pathway contains **85-90% of corticospinal fibers** that cross at the medullary pyramids and descend in the **lateral funiculus** of the spinal cord - It is the **primary pathway for fine, precise, voluntary movements** of **distal extremities**, particularly the hands, fingers, feet, and toes - Enables intricate skilled movements like writing, buttoning, and fine manipulation due to direct monosynaptic connections to motor neurons - Damage results in loss of fine motor control and skilled movements *Anterior corticospinal tract* - Contains only **10-15% of corticospinal fibers** that descend uncrossed in the anterior spinal cord - Controls **bilateral movements of axial and proximal muscles** (neck, trunk, shoulders) - Not specialized for fine motor control of distal limbs *Vestibulospinal tract* - Regulates **posture and balance** by modulating extensor muscle tone - Coordinates head position and maintains upright posture - Does not control fine voluntary movements *Reticulospinal tract* - Modulates **muscle tone, posture, and locomotion** - Provides general motor control and autonomic regulation - Not specialized for precise, intricate fine motor movements

Q: Which of the following substances has the same concentration in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and plasma?

Cl. ***Cl*** - **Chloride ions (Cl-)** have the **closest concentration** between CSF and plasma among the listed options, with a CSF-to-plasma ratio of approximately 1.1-1.15. - CSF chloride is **slightly higher** than plasma chloride (CSF: ~120-130 mEq/L; Plasma: ~100-110 mEq/L) because chloride ions freely cross the **blood-brain barrier** and help maintain **electroneutrality** in CSF due to the low protein content. - The elevated chloride compensates for the absence of negatively charged proteins in CSF, making it the **best answer** among the given options. *Glucose* - **Glucose** concentration in CSF is approximately **60-70%** of plasma glucose concentration (CSF: 50-80 mg/dL; Plasma: 70-110 mg/dL). - Transport across the **blood-brain barrier** occurs via **GLUT1 transporters**, which are tightly regulated to meet brain metabolic demands. *Ca* - **Calcium (Ca2+)** concentration in CSF is **significantly lower** than in plasma (CSF: ~2.1-2.5 mg/dL; Plasma: ~8.5-10.5 mg/dL). - Only the **ionized, unbound fraction** can cross the blood-brain barrier, as protein-bound calcium cannot pass through. *HCO3* - **Bicarbonate (HCO3-)** concentration in CSF is typically **slightly lower** than in plasma (CSF: ~20-25 mEq/L; Plasma: ~22-28 mEq/L). - Active regulation maintains **CSF pH** and CO2 buffering capacity independent of plasma bicarbonate levels.

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding axillary lymph nodes is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels

Answer

Posterior group lies along subscapular vessels

Answer

Apical group is terminal lymph nodes

Answer

Apical group lies along axillary vessels

Question 2

How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

Accepted Answer

3

Answer

2

Answer

5

Answer

4

Question 3

Which of the following is a cerebellar nucleus?

Accepted Answer

Fastigial nucleus

Answer

Putamen

Answer

Caudate nucleus

Answer

Subthalamic nucleus

Question 4

All are supplied by the anterior interosseous nerve except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Answer

Pronator quadratus

Answer

Flexor digitorum profundus (lateral half)

Answer

Flexor pollicis longus

Question 5

Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Hemolysis

Answer

Iron deficiency anemia

Answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer

Aplastic anemia

Question 6

In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?

Accepted Answer

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Answer

Hairy cell leukemia

Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Hodgkin's lymphoma

Question 7

Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?

Accepted Answer

Ringed sideroblasts are associated with sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Sickle cells are present in sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Target cells are commonly seen in sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Howell Jolly bodies can be found in sickle cell anemia.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true regarding light microscopy findings in minimal change disease?

Accepted Answer

No significant changes are seen under light microscopy.

Answer

Foot process effacement is observed under electron microscopy, not light microscopy.

Answer

Anti-GBM antibodies are associated with Goodpasture syndrome, not minimal change disease.

Answer

IgA deposits are characteristic of IgA nephropathy, not minimal change disease.

Question 9

Spinal pathway mainly regulating fine motor activity?

Accepted Answer

Lateral corticospinal tract

Answer

Vestibulospinal tract

Answer

Anterior corticospinal tract

Answer

Reticulospinal tract

Question 10

Which of the following substances has the same concentration in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and plasma?

Accepted Answer

Cl

Answer

Glucose

Answer

Ca

Answer

HCO3

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Physiology