Anatomy
1 questionsWhat is the approximate number of cones in the human retina?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: What is the approximate number of cones in the human retina?
- A. Approximately 3-5 million cones (Correct Answer)
- B. Approximately 25-50 million cones
- C. Approximately 50-100 million cones
- D. Approximately 10-20 million cones
Explanation: Approximately 3-5 million cones - The human retina contains roughly **4.5 million cones**, concentrated in the **fovea**, which is responsible for **high-acuity vision** and color perception [1]. - Cones are light-sensitive cells that detect **fine details** and are essential for vision in **bright light conditions** [1]. *Approximately 10-20 million cones* - This range is significantly higher than the actual number of cones found in the human retina. - While there are millions of photoreceptors, the *majority are rods*, not cones [1]. *Approximately 25-50 million cones* - This figure vastly *overestimates* the number of cones in the human eye. - The total number of photoreceptor cells (rods and cones combined) in the retina typically ranges from **100-125 million** [1]. *Approximately 50-100 million cones* - This range is incorrect as it refers more closely to the *total number of rods* in the human retina, which is about **90-120 million** [1]. - Cones constitute a much smaller proportion of the total photoreceptor population [1].
Biochemistry
1 questionsTrypsinogen is converted to trypsin by?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by?
- A. Combination of 2 molecules of trypsinogen
- B. Phosphorylation
- C. Addition of alkyl group
- D. Removal of specific amino acids from trypsinogen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Removal of specific amino acids from trypsinogen*** - Trypsinogen is an **inactive zymogen** that is activated by the enzymatic cleavage of a **short N-terminal peptide**. - This cleavage event, primarily catalyzed by **enteropeptidase** (or trypsin itself), transforms trypsinogen into active **trypsin**, a process known as **proteolytic activation**. *Combination of 2 molecules of trypsinogen* - The activation of trypsinogen to trypsin is a **unimolecular conformational change** followed by proteolytic cleavage, not a combination reaction between two zymogen molecules. - While trypsin can activate other trypsinogen molecules, the initial activation does not involve the physical combination of two zymogen molecules. *Phosphorylation* - **Phosphorylation** is a common regulatory mechanism in proteins but is not the primary method for activating inactive trypsinogen. - Trypsinogen activation relies on a **proteolytic cleavage event**, rather than the addition of a phosphate group. *Addition of alkyl group* - The addition of an **alkyl group** is not a known mechanism for the physiological activation of trypsinogen. - Enzymatic activation typically involves **hydrolysis of peptide bonds** or other specific post-translational modifications.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements is true regarding light microscopy findings in minimal change disease?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which of the following statements is true regarding light microscopy findings in minimal change disease?
- A. Foot process effacement is observed under electron microscopy, not light microscopy.
- B. Anti-GBM antibodies are associated with Goodpasture syndrome, not minimal change disease.
- C. No significant changes are seen under light microscopy. (Correct Answer)
- D. IgA deposits are characteristic of IgA nephropathy, not minimal change disease.
Explanation: ***No change seen*** - In minimal change disease, **light microscopy** typically shows no significant changes, which is a key characteristic of the condition [1]. - The disease primarily affects the **podocytes** leading to **nephrotic syndrome**, while light microscopy does not reveal any abnormalities [1]. *Loss of foot process seen* - Loss of foot processes is actually observed under **electron microscopy**, not light microscopy. - Light microscopy remains normal, differentiating minimal change disease from other glomerular diseases. *IgA deposits seen* - IgA deposits are associated with **IgA nephropathy**, which is a different condition characterized by mesangial deposition. - Minimal change disease does not have **immunofluorescence** findings, and thus shows no such deposits on light microscopy [1]. *Anti GBM Abs seen* - Anti-GBM antibodies are characteristic of **Goodpasture syndrome**, which presents with significant changes in glomerular structure. - In minimal change disease, there are no **anti-GBM antibodies** or major changes visible under light microscopy. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 927-928.
Physiology
6 questionsWhich of the following does not have sympathetic noradrenergic fibers?
What is the normal range of renal blood flow in humans?
Which of the following is the primary mechanism that drives sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
What is the most important extracellular buffer?
Sugars are primarily absorbed in?
Lowest pH is seen in which of the gastrointestinal secretions?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which of the following does not have sympathetic noradrenergic fibers?
- A. Heart
- B. Eye
- C. Sweat gland (Correct Answer)
- D. Blood vessels
Explanation: ***Sweat gland*** - While sweat glands are innervated by the **sympathetic nervous system**, their postganglionic fibers are **cholinergic**, releasing **acetylcholine** rather than noradrenaline. - This is an important exception where sympathetic stimulation leads to acetylcholine release, causing sweating. *Blood vessels* - Most blood vessels, particularly resistance vessels such as **arterioles**, receive substantial **sympathetic noradrenergic innervation** that causes vasoconstriction. - This sympathetic tone is crucial for regulating **blood pressure** and distributing blood flow. *Heart* - The heart is richly innervated by **sympathetic noradrenergic fibers** that increase **heart rate**, **contractility**, and **conduction velocity** via beta-1 adrenergic receptors. - This makes noradrenaline a key neurotransmitter in the sympathetic regulation of cardiac function. *Eye* - The eye receives sympathetic noradrenergic innervation primarily to the **dilator pupillae muscle**, causing **mydriasis** (pupil dilation) upon activation. - These fibers also contribute to the sympathetic control of the **tarsal muscle** (Müller's muscle) in the eyelid.
Question 192: What is the normal range of renal blood flow in humans?
- A. 1 to 1.2 L/min (Correct Answer)
- B. 1.5 to 2 L/min
- C. 2 to 2.5 L/min
- D. 2.5 to 3 L/min
Explanation: ***1 to 1.2 L/min*** - The **kidneys** receive a substantial portion of the **cardiac output**, typically around 20-25%, to perform their filtration and regulatory functions. - This translates to an absolute renal blood flow of approximately **1000 to 1200 mL/min**, or **1 to 1.2 liters per minute**. - This represents the normal physiological range for healthy adults at rest. *1.5 to 2 L/min* - This range is **higher than the normal physiological** renal blood flow. - While renal blood flow can be influenced by various factors, sustained flow in this range would typically be considered **above the average baseline** for healthy individuals. *2 to 2.5 L/min* - This range significantly **exceeds the typical** renal blood flow observed in healthy humans. - Such high flow rates would be **unusual** and are not representative of normal renal perfusion. *2.5 to 3 L/min* - This range represents an **extremely high** renal blood flow, far beyond what is considered normal. - Sustained perfusion at this level would be **pathological** or indicative of an experimental setting rather than a physiological state.
Question 193: Which of the following is the primary mechanism that drives sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
- A. Sodium reabsorption through cotransport with amino acids at the luminal membrane.
- B. Sodium reabsorption through cotransport with glucose at the luminal membrane.
- C. Sodium reabsorption through countertransport with hydrogen ions at the luminal membrane.
- D. Active sodium transport via the Na+-K+-ATPase pump at the basolateral membrane. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Active sodium transport via the Na+-K+-ATPase pump at the basolateral membrane.*** - This pump **actively transports sodium out of the cell** into the interstitial fluid, creating a low intracellular sodium concentration. - The **Na+-K+-ATPase** is the primary driver of sodium reabsorption throughout the nephron, creating the electrochemical gradient for other sodium transporters. *Sodium reabsorption through cotransport with amino acids at the luminal membrane.* - While **sodium-amino acid cotransport** does occur in the proximal tubule, it accounts for only a fraction of total sodium reabsorption. - The primary driving force for this cotransport is the **low intracellular sodium concentration** maintained by the Na+-K+-ATPase. *Sodium reabsorption through cotransport with glucose at the luminal membrane.* - **Sodium-glucose cotransporters (SGLTs)** are crucial for glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule, moving glucose into the cell along with sodium. - However, glucose cotransport represents a specific mechanism for glucose handling, not the overarching mechanism for sodium reabsorption. *Sodium reabsorption through countertransport with hydrogen ions at the luminal membrane.* - The **Na+-H+ exchanger (NHE3)** is significant for exchanging sodium for hydrogen ions at the luminal membrane in the proximal tubule. - This mechanism is important for **acid-base balance** and some sodium reabsorption, but it is secondary to the Na+-K+-ATPase in driving the overall sodium gradient.
Question 194: What is the most important extracellular buffer?
- A. Bicarbonates (Correct Answer)
- B. Phosphate buffer
- C. Plasma protein buffer
- D. Ammonium buffer
Explanation: ***Bicarbonates*** - The **bicarbonate buffer system** is the most important extracellular buffer because its components (carbonic acid and bicarbonate) are present in high concentrations and their levels can be regulated by both the lungs (CO2 excretion) and the kidneys (bicarbonate reabsorption/secretion). - Its pKa (6.1) makes it an effective buffer against metabolically produced acids, which frequently challenge blood pH. *Phosphate buffer* - The **phosphate buffer system** is more important as an intracellular buffer and in renal tubular fluid due to its higher concentration in these compartments. - Its concentration in the extracellular fluid is relatively low compared to bicarbonate, limiting its capacity as the primary extracellular buffer. *Plasma protein buffer* - **Plasma proteins**, particularly albumin, have numerous ionizable groups and contribute to buffering in the extracellular fluid. - However, their overall buffering capacity is less significant than that of the bicarbonate system due to lower concentration compared to bicarbonate and less dynamic regulation. *Ammonium buffer* - The **ammonium buffer system** (ammonia/ammonium) is primarily important for acid-base regulation by the kidneys, where it plays a critical role in excreting excess acid, particularly in chronic acidosis. - It is not a major extracellular fluid buffer in the systemic circulation under normal physiological conditions.
Question 195: Sugars are primarily absorbed in?
- A. Duodenum
- B. Jejunum (Correct Answer)
- C. Ascending colon
- D. Ileum
Explanation: ***Jejunum*** - The **jejunum** is the primary site for the absorption of most digested nutrients, including the vast majority of **monosaccharides** (simple sugars like glucose, fructose, and galactose). - Its structure, with numerous **plicae circulares**, villi, and microvilli, provides a large surface area optimized for efficient nutrient uptake. *Duodenum* - The **duodenum** is mainly involved in the **chemical digestion** of food, receiving chyme from the stomach and mixing it with digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver. - While some minimal absorption can occur, it is not the primary site for extensive sugar absorption. *Ileum* - The **ileum** is mainly responsible for the absorption of **vitamin B12** and **bile salts**. - Although some residual nutrient absorption can happen here if the jejunum is compromised, it is not the primary physiological site for sugar absorption. *Ascending colon* - The **ascending colon** is primarily involved in the absorption of **water and electrolytes**, forming solid stool. - It does not significantly absorb sugars; undigested carbohydrates reaching the colon are typically fermented by gut bacteria.
Question 196: Lowest pH is seen in which of the gastrointestinal secretions?
- A. Gastric juice (Correct Answer)
- B. Bile juice
- C. Saliva
- D. Pancreatic juice
Explanation: ***Gastric juice*** - Gastric juice contains **hydrochloric acid (HCl)**, secreted by parietal cells, which gives it a very **low pH (1.5-3.5)**. - This acidic environment is crucial for protein digestion by **pepsin** and for killing ingested microorganisms. *Bile juice* - Bile juice is typically **alkaline**, with a pH ranging from **7.6 to 8.6**. - Its primary role is to **emulsify fats** in the small intestine, and it does not contain significant acidic components. *Saliva* - Saliva has a relatively neutral pH, typically ranging from **6.2 to 7.6**. - It contains enzymes like **amylase** and **lipase** for initial carbohydrate and lipid digestion, but no strong acids. *Pancreatic juice* - Pancreatic juice is highly **alkaline**, with a pH usually between **8.0 and 8.3**, due to its high concentration of bicarbonate. - This alkalinity neutralizes the acidic chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach, creating an optimal environment for pancreatic enzymes.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
- A. Non comedo DCIS
- B. Fibroadenoma
- C. Invasive ductal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Comedocarcinoma
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - Paget's disease of the breast leads to **palpable abnormalities** such as skin changes and underlying mass formation [1]. - Often presents with **nipple discharge** and alterations in the areola, indicating an underlying malignancy [2]. *Non comedo DCIS* - Non comedo ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) typically presents with **microscopic changes** and lacks palpable masses. - Frequently asymptomatic and may not cause any **significant clinical findings** or changes in the breast. *None* - This option suggests the absence of a related condition, which does not address the query about a type of DCIS causing a **palpable abnormality**. - In the context of DCIS, there are sure conditions (like Paget's) that **do cause palpable changes**. *Comedocarcinoma* - This type of DCIS is characterized by **necrosis and calcifications**, rather than a palpable mass. - While potentially aggressive, it usually does not present with noticeable **palpable abnormalities** like Paget's disease. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1061-1062. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.