Community Medicine
4 questionsIn tuberculosis, a 'case' is
Schedule-3 of MCI includes –
Objectives of National Mental Health programme are all except -
A child is obese if he/she has weight-for-height according to growth chart standards -
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: In tuberculosis, a 'case' is
- A. Cough
- B. X-ray positive
- C. Sputum positive (Correct Answer)
- D. Mantoux positive
Explanation: ***Sputum positive*** - In the context of **tuberculosis (TB)**, a 'case' is defined by **bacteriological confirmation**, most commonly through **sputum smear positivity** for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). - According to **RNTCP (Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme)** guidelines, a sputum smear-positive case is one with at least **two sputum specimens positive for AFB**, or one sputum specimen positive for AFB plus radiographic abnormalities consistent with active pulmonary TB. - A positive sputum smear confirms the presence of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** in the respiratory tract, indicating active, transmissible infection requiring immediate treatment. *Cough* - **Cough** is a common symptom of tuberculosis but is not sufficient on its own to define a 'case'. - Many respiratory conditions can cause a cough, and it does not confirm the presence of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** or infectiousness. - Cough lasting more than 2-3 weeks is a screening criterion for TB suspects, not a case definition. *X-ray positive* - A **positive chest X-ray** can show abnormalities consistent with tuberculosis, such as infiltrates, cavities, or hilar lymphadenopathy. - However, radiological findings alone do not definitively confirm a TB diagnosis, as many other conditions can mimic TB on chest X-ray. - Chest X-ray is used for **clinically diagnosed TB cases** when bacteriological confirmation is not possible, but it does not establish active infectivity without microbiological confirmation. *Mantoux positive* - A **positive Mantoux test** (tuberculin skin test) indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis and the presence of a cell-mediated immune response. - It signifies **latent TB infection (LTBI)** but does not indicate active, infectious disease. - Many people with positive Mantoux tests never develop active TB and are not considered 'cases'.
Question 1532: Schedule-3 of MCI includes –
- A. DNB degree
- B. Diploma of CPS (Correct Answer)
- C. MBBS degree of Indian universities
- D. MBBS degree of foreign universities
Explanation: ***Diploma of CPS*** - Schedule-3 of the Indian Medical Council Act primarily lists **recognized medical qualifications granted by institutions outside India**, as well as certain specialized diplomas like the **Diploma of College of Physicians and Surgeons (CPS)**. - The inclusion of the Diploma of CPS in Schedule-3 allows its holders to be registered as medical practitioners in India for specific purposes. *DNB degree* - The **Diplomate of National Board (DNB)** is a postgraduate medical qualification awarded by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) in India. - DNB degrees are typically listed under **Schedule-1** or **Schedule-2** of the Indian Medical Council Act, not Schedule-3, as they are granted by an Indian authority. *MBBS degree of Indian universities* - **MBBS degrees awarded by universities in India** are recognized under **Schedule-1** of the Indian Medical Council Act. - Schedule-1 specifically lists all medical qualifications granted by universities or medical institutions in India. *MBBS degree of foreign universities* - While MBBS degrees from foreign universities are recognized, their recognition is usually governed by **Schedule-2** of the Indian Medical Council Act, which lists medical qualifications granted by institutions outside India and recognized by the Indian Medical Council after fulfilling certain conditions. - Schedule-3 primarily includes a different set of foreign or specialized qualifications, not the general MBBS degree from foreign universities.
Question 1533: Objectives of National Mental Health programme are all except -
- A. Promote application of mental health knowledge
- B. Promote community participation
- C. Provide accessibility of mental health care
- D. Provide free antipsychotic drugs to all (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Provide free antipsychotic drugs to all*** - While ensuring access to essential medicines is important, the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) does not explicitly guarantee **free antipsychotic drugs to all** individuals, as the scope of provision can depend on various factors like specific conditions, and availability of resources. - The primary objectives are broader and focus on overall mental health care delivery and promotion, rather than a universal provision of specific medications, especially when the need for such drugs may not apply to "all" individuals in the population. *Provide accessibility of mental health care* - A core objective of the NMHP is to make **mental health care accessible** to all individuals, particularly in rural and underserved areas. - This involves establishing services at primary, secondary, and tertiary care levels. *Promote community participation* - The NMHP aims to foster **community involvement** in mental health awareness, destigmatization, and support for individuals with mental illness. - This includes engaging communities in prevention, promotion, and rehabilitation efforts. *Promote application of mental health knowledge* - A key goal is to enhance the **understanding and application of mental health knowledge** among healthcare professionals, policymakers, and the general public. - This objective supports evidence-based practices and informed decision-making in mental health care.
Question 1534: A child is obese if he/she has weight-for-height according to growth chart standards -
- A. 1 SD from median weight for height
- B. 2 SD from median weight for height (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 SD from median weight for height
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***2 SD from median weight for height*** - According to **WHO growth chart standards**, a child is considered **obese** if their weight-for-height measurement is **≥ +2 standard deviations (SD)** above the median. - This cutoff (weight-for-height Z-score ≥ +2 SD) signifies a high degree of adiposity relative to height, indicating significant risk of obesity-related health issues. - Alternatively, **BMI-for-age ≥ +2 SD** can also be used to define childhood obesity. *1 SD from median weight for height* - A weight-for-height between **+1 SD and +2 SD** above the median typically indicates **overweight** (at risk of obesity), but not yet obesity, according to WHO growth standards. - While concerning and requiring monitoring, it does not meet the criteria for obesity. *3 SD from median weight for height* - A weight-for-height of **≥ +3 SD** above the median is classified as **severe obesity** or **severe acute malnutrition** (if severely underweight). - This represents an even more extreme level of adiposity than the standard definition of obesity. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **≥ +2 SD from the median weight for height** is the internationally recognized WHO threshold for classifying obesity in children based on growth charts.
ENT
1 questionsTelephonophobia refers to -
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: Telephonophobia refers to -
- A. Beating on ears (Correct Answer)
- B. Beating on soles
- C. Beating on palms
- D. Pulling of hair
Explanation: ⚠️ **CRITICAL NOTE**: This question contains a terminology error. "Telephonophobia" in medical literature refers to **fear of telephones** (a specific phobia), NOT a physical symptom involving the ears. However, based on the context of this being a NEET-2013 question with "beating on ears" as the answer, this may be: 1. A mistranslation or historical term no longer in use 2. Confusion with another medical term 3. An error in the original examination **For exam purposes, the marked answer reflects the original question**, but students should note: ***Beating on ears*** (Marked as correct per original question) - This answer suggests the question may have intended to ask about a different term or concept - In modern medical terminology, this is **NOT** the definition of telephonophobia - **Telephonophobia** = irrational fear of making or receiving telephone calls (psychiatric condition) *Beating on soles* - This refers to **bastinado**, a form of corporal punishment - Not related to any phobia terminology *Beating on palms* - A form of corporal punishment - Not a recognized medical terminology for any phobia *Pulling of hair* - This describes **trichotillomania**, a body-focused repetitive behavior - Trichotillomania involves recurrent, irresistible urges to pull out hair from the scalp, eyebrows, or other areas **Recommendation**: This question should be reviewed for medical accuracy. The term "telephonophobia" as used here does not align with standard medical terminology.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsIn medico-legal cases, a Class I judicial magistrate has the power to give a maximum punishment of:
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: In medico-legal cases, a Class I judicial magistrate has the power to give a maximum punishment of:
- A. 5 yr, Rs. 3000
- B. 5 yr, Rs. 5000
- C. 3 yr, Rs. 3000
- D. 3 yr, Rs. 10000 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **3 yr, Rs. 10000** - A **Class I Judicial Magistrate** is empowered to award a maximum imprisonment of **3 years** and/or a fine of up to **Rs. 10,000**. - This is stipulated under **Section 29(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973**, which defines the sentencing powers of different judicial magistrates. *5 yr, Rs. 3000* - This option incorrectly states both the maximum imprisonment and the maximum fine for a Class I Judicial Magistrate. - The maximum imprisonment for a Class I Judicial Magistrate is **3 years**, not 5, and the maximum fine is **Rs. 10,000**, not Rs. 3,000. *5 yr, Rs. 5000* - This option indicates an imprisonment period of **5 years**, which is incorrect for a Class I Judicial Magistrate. - While the fine amount is closer to the correct value than in some other incorrect options, the imprisonment period remains inaccurate. *3 yr, Rs. 3000* - While the imprisonment period of **3 years** is correct for a Class I Judicial Magistrate, the maximum fine mentioned – Rs. 3,000 – is incorrect. - The correct maximum fine that can be imposed is **Rs. 10,000**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsKveim test (historical) is used for diagnosis of
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: Kveim test (historical) is used for diagnosis of
- A. Wegeners granulomatosis
- B. Graves disease
- C. Sarcoidosis
- D. None of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***None of the options.*** - While the Kveim test was historically used to diagnose **sarcoidosis**, it is now obsolete. - The Kveim test involved injecting a sarcoid tissue extract and observing for a reaction, but it is no longer used due to concerns about **specificity**, **standardization**, and **transmission of infectious agents**. *Wegeners granulomatosis* - This condition is now known as **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)**. - Diagnosis relies on clinical features, imaging, **biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation and vasculitis**, and **antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)**, particularly **c-ANCA**. *Graves disease* - This is an **autoimmune hyperthyroid condition** diagnosed by specific thyroid hormone levels (low TSH, high free T3/T4) [2]. - The presence of **TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb)** or thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) are key diagnostic markers. *Sarcoidosis* - The Kveim test was indeed historically associated with sarcoidosis, but it is **no longer a current diagnostic tool**. - Current diagnosis involves clinical presentation, **imaging (chest X-ray/CT)** showing bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and **biopsy** demonstrating non-caseating granulomas [1].
Microbiology
1 questionsThe difference between contamination and infection is that in infection
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: The difference between contamination and infection is that in infection
- A. Infectious agent is on body surface (arthropods)
- B. Infectious agent is on body surface or on non-human objects
- C. Infectious agent is on clothes
- D. Infectious agent is in the body of human (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Infectious agent is in the body of human*** - **Infection** implies that microorganisms have successfully **invaded the host tissues** and are replicating within the body, potentially causing a host response or disease. - The presence of the pathogen *inside* the body, beyond just surface adherence, is the defining characteristic of infection. *Arthropods on the body surface* - This describes an **infestation** (e.g., lice, mites), where the arthropods are physically present on the body surface but may not have *invaded* tissues in the same way bacteria or viruses do during an infection. - While some arthropods can transmit infectious agents, their mere presence on the surface is not synonymous with an internal infection. *Infectious agent is on body surface or on non-human objects* - This scenario describes **contamination**, where microorganisms are present on surfaces (either human skin or inanimate objects) but have not yet penetrated or established themselves within host tissues. - Contamination is a potential precursor to infection but is not an infection itself. *Infectious agents on clothes* - This is a clear example of **fomite contamination**, where infectious agents are present on inanimate objects like clothing. - The microorganisms are external to the body and are not causing an infection in the person wearing the clothes unless they are transferred and subsequently invade the host.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhen should semen analysis be done?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: When should semen analysis be done?
- A. After 30-60 mins irrespective of liquefaction
- B. As early as possible
- C. After liquefaction with thorough mixing (Correct Answer)
- D. After 15-30 mins irrespective of liquefaction
Explanation: ***After liquefaction with thorough mixing*** - Semen analysis should be performed **after complete liquefaction** (typically within 20-30 minutes, maximum 60 minutes) followed by **thorough mixing**. - According to **WHO guidelines (2010, 2021)**, the sample must first liquefy completely at room temperature, then be mixed well before microscopic examination. - This ensures accurate assessment of **sperm concentration, motility, and morphology** without artifacts from viscous semen. - The standard practice is to examine within **60 minutes of collection** but only after liquefaction is complete. *After 30-60 mins irrespective of liquefaction* - The phrase "irrespective of liquefaction" is **incorrect** as analysis before complete liquefaction leads to inaccurate results. - Performing analysis on a non-liquefied sample can cause **underestimation of sperm motility** and difficulty in proper microscopic assessment. - Liquefaction status must be assessed before proceeding with analysis. *As early as possible* - Analyzing too early before **liquefaction** (which typically takes 20-30 minutes) will yield inaccurate results. - A viscous, non-liquefied sample impairs proper **sperm movement assessment** and mixing. *After 15-30 mins irrespective of liquefaction* - While 30 minutes may be sufficient for many samples to liquefy, the phrase "irrespective of liquefaction" makes this incorrect. - Some samples may require up to **60 minutes** to liquefy completely, and analysis should not proceed until liquefaction is confirmed.
Psychiatry
1 questionsTrue about delirium is all Except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1531: True about delirium is all Except:
- A. Preserved attention (Correct Answer)
- B. Hallucination
- C. Disturbed sleep
- D. Disorientation
Explanation: ***Preserved attention*** - A key feature of **delirium** is a **disturbance in attention**, making it difficult to focus, sustain, or shift attention. - Therefore, **preserved attention** is inconsistent with a diagnosis of delirium. *Hallucination* - **Hallucinations**, particularly visual, are common in delirium and often contribute to the patient's distress and altered perception of reality. - They tend to be vivid, fleeting, and can be frightening. *Disturbed sleep* - **Sleep-wake cycle disturbances** are a hallmark of delirium, often manifesting as insomnia, daytime sleepiness, or a disrupted, fragmented sleep pattern. - This disturbance is part of the global alteration in brain activity. *Disorientation* - **Disorientation**, especially to time, place, and sometimes person, is a frequent symptom of delirium, reflecting the patient's impaired cognitive function. - It indicates a significant impairment in awareness of one's surroundings.