Anatomy
1 questionsSubmandibular nodes are classified as
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Submandibular nodes are classified as
- A. Level III neck nodes
- B. Level II neck nodes
- C. Level 1B neck nodes (Correct Answer)
- D. Level 1A neck nodes
Explanation: ***Level 1B neck nodes*** - The **submandibular nodes** are located anterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and lateral to the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, placing them within **Level 1B** of the neck lymph node classification [1]. - This level primarily drains the oral cavity, face, and submandibular gland [1]. *Level III neck nodes* - **Level III** nodes are the middle jugular nodes, located between the level of the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage. - These nodes are typically found along the **internal jugular vein** and drain structures such as the larynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. *Level II neck nodes* - **Level II** nodes, or upper jugular nodes, are located from the skull base to the inferior border of the hyoid bone, along the internal jugular vein. - This level is further divided into Level IIA (anterior to the spinal accessory nerve) and Level IIB (posterior to the spinal accessory nerve) and drains structures like the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and parotid gland. *Level 1 A neck nodes* - **Level 1A** nodes refer to the **submental nodes**, which are located between the anterior bellies of the digastric muscles [1]. - These nodes primarily drain the central lower lip, floor of the mouth, anterior tongue, and chin [1].
Community Medicine
2 questionsDescending order of cancer prevalence in males in India?
The most important sandfly-transmitted disease in India is-
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Descending order of cancer prevalence in males in India?
- A. Oral > lung > pharynx > esophagus
- B. Pharynx > lung > oral > esophagus
- C. Lung > oral > pharynx > esophagus (Correct Answer)
- D. Esophagus > oral > stomach > lung
Explanation: ***Lung > oral > pharynx > esophagus*** - This order represents the **most common cancer prevalence pattern** in Indian males according to **ICMR-NCDIR** population-based cancer registries. - **Lung cancer** ranks highest nationally, strongly associated with **smoking** (bidi and cigarette use). - **Oral cavity cancer** is extremely prevalent in India due to **tobacco chewing, betel quid, and gutka consumption**. - **Pharyngeal cancer** and **esophageal cancer** follow, also linked to tobacco and alcohol use. - Regional variations exist, but this order reflects **national-level data** for Indian males. *Oral > lung > pharynx > esophagus* - While **oral cancer prevalence is very high** in India (competing with lung cancer in some regions), at the **national aggregate level**, lung cancer typically ranks first. - This order may be accurate for **specific regions** with high tobacco chewing prevalence but does not represent the overall national pattern. *Pharynx > lung > oral > esophagus* - **Pharyngeal cancer** is less prevalent than both **lung and oral cancers** in Indian males. - This sequence incorrectly places pharyngeal cancer at the top, which contradicts **Indian cancer registry data**. *Esophagus > oral > stomach > lung* - This order is incorrect as **esophageal and stomach cancers** are significantly less prevalent than **lung and oral cancers** in Indian males. - **Lung cancer consistently ranks at or near the top** in Indian male cancer statistics, making this order epidemiologically inaccurate.
Question 1522: The most important sandfly-transmitted disease in India is-
- A. Kala azar (Correct Answer)
- B. Typhus
- C. Relapsing fever
- D. Plague
Explanation: ***Kala azar*** - **Kala azar**, or **visceral leishmaniasis**, is a severe parasitic disease endemic to India, transmitted primarily by *Phlebotomus argentipes* sandflies. - It is characterized by fever, **splenomegaly**, hepatomegaly, and can be fatal if untreated, making it a major public health concern. *Typhus* - **Typhus** is caused by Rickettsial bacteria and is typically transmitted by lice or fleas, not sandflies. - Symptoms include fever, rash, and headache, differing significantly from the visceral symptoms of Kala azar. *Relapsing fever* - **Relapsing fever** is caused by *Borrelia* bacteria and is transmitted by ticks or lice, not sandflies. - It is characterized by recurring episodes of fever, distinct from the progressive symptoms of Kala azar. *Plague* - **Plague** is caused by *Yersinia pestis* and is primarily transmitted by **fleas** carried by rodents. - It presents with buboes, fever, and sepsis, which are different from the clinical manifestations of sandfly-borne diseases.
Dermatology
1 questionsWood's lamp has a wavelength of –
NEET-PG 2013 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Wood's lamp has a wavelength of –
- A. 320 nm
- B. 300 nm
- C. 360 nm (Correct Answer)
- D. 250 nm
Explanation: ***360 nm*** - A **Wood's lamp** emits **long-wave ultraviolet (UV-A) light**, which is typically in the range of 320 to 450 nm. - The precise wavelength of **360 nm** is the most common and effective for dermatological diagnostic applications, allowing visualization of specific fluorescence patterns. *320 nm* - While 320 nm falls within the UV-A spectrum, it is at the lower end and less characteristic of the peak emission wavelength used in Wood's lamps for diagnostic purposes. - Using this lower wavelength might result in less pronounced or absent fluorescence for some conditions. *300 nm* - A wavelength of 300 nm is in the **UV-B spectrum** which is primarily used for therapeutic purposes like **phototherapy for psoriasis**, not for diagnostic fluorescence with a Wood's lamp. - UV-B light has different biological effects and is too short to elicit the characteristic fluorescence observed with a Wood's lamp. *250 nm* - This wavelength falls into the **UV-C spectrum**, which is **germicidal** and harmful to human tissue. - UV-C light is not used in Wood's lamps for diagnostic purposes due to its damaging properties and inability to produce the desired fluorescence.
ENT
1 questionsTrismus is commonly seen in
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Trismus is commonly seen in
- A. Ludwig's angina
- B. Parapharyngeal abscess
- C. Retropharyngeal abscess
- D. Quinsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Quinsy*** - **Quinsy (peritonsillar abscess)** is the **most common cause of trismus** among pharyngeal infections. - Trismus occurs due to **inflammation and reflex spasm of the pterygoid muscles** adjacent to the abscess. - The severe pain and swelling in the peritonsillar region directly limit **mandibular movement**, making it difficult or impossible to open the mouth. - **Trismus is one of the cardinal clinical features** of quinsy. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** can also cause trismus due to direct inflammation and irritation of the muscles of mastication. - However, it is **less common than quinsy** and typically presents with other prominent symptoms like **neck swelling**, lateral pharyngeal bulging, and internal carotid artery involvement risk. *Ludwig's angina* - While Ludwig's angina is a severe infection of the **submandibular and sublingual spaces**, trismus is **less common** and less pronounced compared to peritonsillar abscess. - The primary concern in Ludwig's angina is **airway obstruction** due to tongue elevation and "bull neck" swelling, not typically severe trismus. *Retropharyngeal abscess* - A **retropharyngeal abscess** is located behind the pharynx and typically manifests with **dysphagia**, **odynophagia**, **neck stiffness**, and respiratory distress. - While indirect muscle spasm can occur, **trismus is not a characteristic or common symptom** of retropharyngeal abscess, which primarily affects swallowing and neck mobility.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsIncest is defined as sexual intercourse between which individuals?
A doctor conducts criminal abortion for a woman with consent. He will be prosecuted under which of the following IPC sections?
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Incest is defined as sexual intercourse between which individuals?
- A. Closely related individuals (Correct Answer)
- B. Individuals other than spouse
- C. Humans and animals
- D. Unrelated individuals of same gender
Explanation: ***Closely related individuals*** - **Incest** refers to sexual intercourse between individuals who are considered too **closely related** by lineage or kinship to marry each other legally. - The definition of "closely related" varies across cultures and legal systems but generally includes **immediate family members** such as parents, children, and siblings. *Individuals other than spouse* - This definition describes **adultery** or **extramarital affairs**, which are distinct from incest. - While both involve sexual acts outside of legally or socially accepted norms, they differ significantly in the relationship between the involved parties. *Humans and animals* - This describes **bestiality** or **zoophilia**, which is a form of sexual activity involving humans and animals. - This is a separate and distinct concept from incest, which specifically concerns sexual relations between humans within a prohibited degree of kinship. *Unrelated individuals of same gender* - This describes **homosexual** sexual acts between adults, which are not inherently illegal or considered incestuous. - Incest is defined specifically by the **familial relationship** between the individuals, not their gender or lack of marital ties.
Question 1522: A doctor conducts criminal abortion for a woman with consent. He will be prosecuted under which of the following IPC sections?
- A. 316 IPC
- B. 313 IPC
- C. 312 IPC (Correct Answer)
- D. 317 IPC
Explanation: ***312 IPC*** - This section of the **Indian Penal Code (IPC)** specifically deals with **causing miscarriage** or criminal abortion. - Doing so with the woman's consent, but outside of legal provisions, falls under this section. *316 IPC* - This section deals with **causing the death of a quick unborn child**, an act amounting to culpable homicide. - It would apply if the act intended to cause the death of the child, not just to induce an abortion. *313 IPC* - This section addresses **causing miscarriage without the woman's consent**. - Since the question states the abortion was done "with consent," this section is not applicable. *317 IPC* - This section pertains to the **exposure and abandonment of a child** under twelve years of age by parent or person having care of it. - This is unrelated to the act of performing an abortion.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsRash is absent in ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Rash is absent in ?
- A. Endemic typhus
- B. Epidemic typhus
- C. Scrub typhus
- D. Q. fever (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Q. fever*** - Q fever, caused by **Coxiella burnetii**, is characterized by **flu-like symptoms**, pneumonia, and hepatitis, but **does not typically present with a rash**. - This differentiates it from other rickettsial infections that commonly involve skin manifestations. *Endemic typhus* - Endemic (murine) typhus, caused by **Rickettsia typhi**, is transmitted by **fleas** and commonly presents with a **maculopapular rash** on the trunk and extremities [2]. - The rash usually appears several days after fever onset [2]. *Epidemic typhus* - Epidemic typhus, caused by **Rickettsia prowazekii** and transmitted by the **human body louse**, classically presents with a **centrifugal rash** that spares the face, palms, and soles [2]. - The rash typically starts on the trunk and spreads outwards [2]. *Scrub typhus* - Scrub typhus, caused by **Orientia tsutsugamushi**, is transmitted by **chiggers** and often features an **eschar** (a necrotic lesion at the bite site) along with a **maculopapular rash** [1]. - The rash may be transient or absent in some cases, but an eschar is a highly characteristic finding [1].
Pharmacology
1 questionsInactivated SA 14-14-2 vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Inactivated SA 14-14-2 vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?
- A. Toxoid vaccine
- B. Live attenuated vaccine (Correct Answer)
- C. Inactivated vaccine
- D. Subunit vaccine
Explanation: ***Live attenuated vaccine*** - The **SA 14-14-2 vaccine** is a **live attenuated Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine** developed through serial passage and attenuation of the wild-type SA 14 strain. - The designation "14-14-2" refers to the specific **attenuated strain** after multiple passages, not to an inactivation process. - This vaccine uses **weakened (attenuated) virus** that can replicate minimally, providing robust and long-lasting immunity similar to natural infection. - It is widely used in **China, India, and other Asian countries** in national immunization programs. *Inactivated vaccine* - While there is also an **inactivated version** of the SA 14-14-2 strain (vero cell-derived inactivated JE vaccine), the term "SA 14-14-2 vaccine" by itself typically refers to the **live attenuated formulation**. - Inactivated vaccines contain killed viral particles that cannot replicate. *Toxoid vaccine* - **Toxoid vaccines** are based on inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids), not viral antigens. - Examples include vaccines for **tetanus** and **diphtheria**, which target toxins produced by bacteria. - This type does not apply to viral vaccines like Japanese Encephalitis. *Subunit vaccine* - **Subunit vaccines** contain only specific purified antigenic components (proteins, polysaccharides) rather than whole organisms. - Examples include **Hepatitis B vaccine** (HBsAg) and **HPV vaccine**. - The SA 14-14-2 vaccine uses the whole attenuated virus, not subunits.
Psychiatry
1 questionsPagophagia involves eating
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1521: Pagophagia involves eating
- A. Sand
- B. Ice (Correct Answer)
- C. Salt
- D. Clay
Explanation: ***Ice*** - **Pagophagia** is a specific form of **pica**, characterized by a compulsive desire to consume **ice**, ice chips, or iced drinks. - It is often associated with **iron-deficiency anemia**, though the exact mechanism for this craving is unclear. *Sand* - The compulsive consumption of **sand** is known as **geophagy**, which is another form of pica. - This behavior is distinct from pagophagia and is not specifically linked to ice consumption. *Salt* - An excessive craving for **salt**, while sometimes indicative of an underlying condition (e.g., adrenal insufficiency), is not referred to as pagophagia. - **Pagophagia** specifically refers to the consumption of ice. *Clay* - The ingestion of **clay** is a specific type of **geophagy**, similar to eating sand. - It is a different form of pica and does not describe the selective craving for and consumption of ice.