Anatomy
1 questionsWhich muscle originates from tendon of other muscle?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Which muscle originates from tendon of other muscle?
- A. FCR
- B. Lumbricals (Correct Answer)
- C. Adductor pollicis
- D. Palmaris longus
Explanation: Lumbricals - The lumbrical muscles are unique in the hand because they originate from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP), not from bone [1]. - This attachment allows them to flex the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints while extending the interphalangeal (IP) joints [1]. FCR - The flexor carpi radialis (FCR) muscle originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus, a bony origin. - Its primary function is flexion and radial deviation of the wrist. Adductor pollicis - The adductor pollicis muscle has two heads, the oblique and transverse heads, both originating from various carpal bones and the third metacarpal. - It plays a crucial role in adducting the thumb. Palmaris longus - The palmaris longus muscle originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus, similar to the FCR. - It contributes to wrist flexion and is absent in a significant portion of the population.
Community Medicine
2 questionsA patient sustained an injury to the right leg in a road traffic accident and his leg was amputated. This is?
One PHC covers how much population in hilly area?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: A patient sustained an injury to the right leg in a road traffic accident and his leg was amputated. This is?
- A. Handicap
- B. Impairment (Correct Answer)
- C. Disease
- D. Disability
Explanation: ***Impairment*** - An **impairment** refers to a problem in body function or structure, such as the loss of a limb or organ. - The amputation of the leg is a direct loss of a **body part**, fitting the definition of an impairment. *Handicap* - A **handicap** refers to a disadvantage for an individual, resulting from an impairment or disability, that limits or prevents the fulfillment of a role that is normal for that individual. - It describes the **social consequences** of the impairment, not the physical loss itself. *Disease* - A **disease** is a disorder of structure or function in a human, animal, or plant, especially one that produces specific symptoms or that affects a specific location and is not simply a direct result of physical injury. - While the accident caused the injury, the loss of the leg is a direct physical result, not an **ongoing pathological process** like a disease. *Disability* - A **disability** is a restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being, as a result of an impairment. - It describes the **functional limitation** that arises from the impairment, such as difficulty walking, rather than the physical loss itself.
Question 1502: One PHC covers how much population in hilly area?
- A. 50000
- B. 10000
- C. 20000 (Correct Answer)
- D. 30000
Explanation: ***20000*** - In **hilly, tribal, or difficult areas**, one PHC is generally established for a population of **20,000**. - This lower population coverage is due to challenges in accessibility and the dispersed nature of communities in such regions. - As per **Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS)**, PHCs in difficult terrains serve smaller populations to ensure better healthcare access. *50000* - This figure does not correspond to standard PHC or CHC coverage norms. - A **Community Health Centre (CHC)** typically covers a population of **1,20,000** and serves as a referral unit for four PHCs. - CHCs provide specialist services including surgery, obstetrics & gynecology, pediatrics, and medicine. *10000* - This figure does not match the population coverage of any standard health facility under the Indian health system. - A **Sub-Centre** in hilly/tribal/difficult areas covers approximately **3,000 population**, while in plain areas it covers **5,000 population**. - Sub-Centres are the most peripheral contact point between the primary healthcare system and the community. *30000* - This figure represents the population covered by a Primary Health Centre (PHC) in **plain areas**. - The population coverage is higher in plain areas due to better infrastructure, road connectivity, and accessibility compared to hilly regions. - As per IPHS norms, PHCs in plains serve larger populations than those in difficult terrains.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsProfessional death in medical profession is -
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Professional death in medical profession is -
- A. Removal of name of doctor from panel of RMP (Correct Answer)
- B. Death sentence ordered by judge
- C. Death during police firing
- D. Death of doctor
Explanation: ***Removal of name of doctor from panel of RMP*** - **Professional death** in the medical context refers to the permanent revocation of a doctor's license to practice. - This typically occurs when a physician's name is removed from the **Register of Medical Practitioners (RMP)**, making it illegal for them to practice medicine. *Death sentence ordered by judge* - This is a legal punishment for severe crimes and does not relate to the **professional standing** or *licensure* of a physician. - A death sentence is a judicial outcome for criminal offenses, distinct from *professional misconduct*. *Death during police firing* - This describes a cause of actual physical death and is unrelated to a doctor's **professional status** or ability to practice. - While tragic, it has no bearing on a physician's *professional licensure* or *ethical standing*. *Death of doctor* - This refers to the **biological death** of an individual, which naturally ends their professional career. - However, "professional death" specifically denotes the **loss of professional credentials** while still being alive, due to disciplinary action.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsMuller's manoeuvre is used to
Which of the following is caused by congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Muller's manoeuvre is used to
- A. To remove foreign body from ear
- B. To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing (Correct Answer)
- C. To remove laryngeal foreign body
- D. To find out opening of mouth
Explanation: ***To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing*** - **Muller's manoeuvre** is a diagnostic technique where the patient attempts to inspire forcefully against a **closed mouth and nostrils** while an endoscope observes the upper airway. - This maneuver helps to simulate the negative intraluminal pressure that occurs during sleep, making it useful in identifying the **site and severity of airway obstruction** in patients with sleep-disordered breathing. *To remove foreign body from ear* - Removing foreign bodies from the ear typically involves **irrigation**, specialized instruments (e.g., alligator forceps), or suction, not a breathing maneuver. - This option is unrelated to the physiological assessment of airway obstruction. *To remove laryngeal foreign body* - The primary methods for removing laryngeal foreign bodies are the **Heimlich maneuver** (abdominal thrusts) or direct laryngoscopy and removal. - Muller's manoeuvre is a diagnostic procedure, not a therapeutic one for foreign body extraction. *To find out opening of mouth* - Measuring the **opening of the mouth** is typically done with a ruler or specific instruments to assess jaw mobility (e.g., for temporomandibular joint disorders or trismus). - This is a simple measurement and does not involve the complex physiological assessment of the upper airway that Muller's manoeuvre provides.
Question 1502: Which of the following is caused by congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency:
- A. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- B. Virilism
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hermaphroditism
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - **Congenital 17-hydroxylase deficiency** leads to impaired synthesis of **cortisol** and **sex steroids**, resulting in an accumulation of **mineralocorticoid precursors (corticosterone and deoxycorticosterone)** [1]. - Increased levels of these mineralocorticoids cause **sodium and water retention**, leading to **hypertension** and **hypokalemia**. *Virilism* - **17-hydroxylase deficiency** impairs **androgen synthesis**, preventing the development of male secondary sexual characteristics [2]. - Individuals with this deficiency often present with **female external genitalia** regardless of their genetic sex, or **under-virilization** in genetic males, not virilism [2]. *Hyperkalemia* - The excess mineralocorticoids (deoxycorticosterone) in **17-hydroxylase deficiency** promote **sodium reabsorption** and **potassium excretion** in the kidneys [1]. - This leads to **hypokalemia**, which is the opposite of hyperkalemia. *Hermaphroditism* - **17-hydroxylase deficiency** affects the development of gonads and internal reproductive organs depending on genetic sex. - Genetic males (**XY**) with this deficiency typically develop **female external genitalia** (pseudohermaphroditism or 46, XY DSD), while genetic females (**XX**) typically present as normal females but with **primary amenorrhea** [2]. This genetic condition does not result in true hermaphroditism (presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue) [2].
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich nerve block is given in forceps delivery?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Which nerve block is given in forceps delivery?
- A. Posterior femoral
- B. Genitofemoral
- C. Ilioinguinal
- D. Pudendal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pudendal*** - A **pudendal block** anesthetizes the **perineum, vulva, and lower vagina**, providing pain relief for instrumental deliveries like **forceps delivery** and for episiotomy. - It involves injecting a local anesthetic near the **pudendal nerve** as it passes posterior to the **ischial spine**. *Posterior femoral* - The **posterior femoral cutaneous nerve** primarily innervates the skin of the posterior thigh and part of the perineum but does not provide sufficient deep analgesia for a forceps delivery. - Blocking this nerve alone would not adequately cover the extensive area affected during instrumental delivery. *Genitofemoral* - The **genitofemoral nerve** primarily innervates the skin of the upper medial thigh and parts of the genitalia but is not the primary nerve for pain relief during vaginal delivery procedures. - Its blockade would not provide the comprehensive analgesia needed for a forceps delivery. *Ilio inguinal* - The **ilioinguinal nerve** innervates the skin of the groin, mons pubis, and labia majora but does not provide sufficient anesthesia for the deeper structures involved in a forceps delivery. - An ilioinguinal nerve block is more commonly used for pain control in procedures involving the groin or hernia repair, not for instrumental vaginal delivery.
Ophthalmology
2 questionsMost common cause of ptosis in adults
All are ophthalmological emergencies except -
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Most common cause of ptosis in adults
- A. Idiopathic
- B. Myasthenia gravis
- C. Aponeurotic (Correct Answer)
- D. Paralysis of 3rd nerve
Explanation: ***Aponeurotic*** - **Aponeurotic ptosis** is the most common cause of adult-onset ptosis, resulting from a dehiscence, disinsertion, or stretching of the **levator aponeurosis**. - It typically presents as a gradual onset of ptosis and often occurs bilaterally, though one eye may be more affected. *Idiopathic* - While many cases may initially be labeled idiopathic, a specific cause, such as **aponeurotic changes**, is often identified upon closer examination. - This term is a general descriptor and not a specific pathophysiological mechanism. *Myasthenia gravis* - **Myasthenia gravis** can cause fluctuating ptosis that worsens with fatigue, but it is not the most common cause overall. - It is an **autoimmune neuromuscular junction disorder** characterized by weakness in various skeletal muscles. *Paralysis of 3rd nerve* - **Third nerve palsy** causes ptosis along with other signs like an **out-and-down eye deviation** and a **dilated pupil** (if parasympathetic fibers are involved). - While it causes significant ptosis, it is less common than aponeurotic ptosis and presents with a distinct constellation of symptoms.
Question 1502: All are ophthalmological emergencies except -
- A. Endophthalmitis
- B. CRVO (Correct Answer)
- C. Acute congestive glaucoma
- D. CRAO
Explanation: ***CRVO*** - Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO) is characterized by painless **vision loss** due to retinal hemorrhage and edema, but it is generally *not* considered an immediate, vision-threatening emergency in the same vein as the other options. - While it requires prompt evaluation and management to preserve vision, CRVO allows for a less urgent intervention compared to conditions that can lead to permanent vision loss within hours. *Endophthalmitis* - **Endophthalmitis** is a severe inflammation of the intraocular fluids and tissues, typically caused by infection, and can lead to rapid and irreversible vision loss if not treated urgently. - It presents with pain, redness, reduced vision, and hypopyon (pus in the anterior chamber), necessitating immediate antibiotic treatment and surgical intervention. *Acute congestive glaucoma* - **Acute congestive glaucoma** (acute angle-closure glaucoma) involves a sudden increase in intraocular pressure, causing severe pain, redness, corneal edema, and profound vision loss. - If left untreated, the high pressure can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve within hours, making it a true ocular emergency. *CRAO* - **Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)** is a sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye due to blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to retinal ischemia. - It is an ocular emergency because irreversible retinal damage and vision loss can occur within 90-120 minutes of the occlusion, requiring immediate intervention to restore blood flow.
Psychiatry
1 questionsMost common type of intellectual disability –
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1501: Most common type of intellectual disability –
- A. Mild (Correct Answer)
- B. Severe
- C. Profound
- D. Moderate
Explanation: ***Mild*** - **Mild intellectual disability** is the most prevalent type, accounting for approximately **85%** of all cases. - Individuals with mild intellectual disability can often achieve academic skills up to a **sixth-grade level** and live relatively independently with appropriate support. *Severe* - **Severe intellectual disability** is less common, affecting about **3-4%** of individuals with intellectual disability. - These individuals typically require **daily supervision** and support in structured environments. *Profound* - **Profound intellectual disability** is the least common type, affecting only **1-2%** of individuals with intellectual disability. - Individuals with profound intellectual disability require **intensive support** for all aspects of daily living and often have significant physical impairments. *Moderate* - **Moderate intellectual disability** accounts for about **10%** of all cases. - Individuals with moderate intellectual disability can often develop communication skills and manage basic self-care, but require **ongoing supervision** and support.