Community Medicine
1 questionsNVBDCP includes all except ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: NVBDCP includes all except ?
- A. Filariasis
- B. Malaria
- C. Kala-azar
- D. Yellow fever (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Yellow fever*** - Yellow fever is a **viral hemorrhagic fever** transmitted by infected mosquitoes, primarily **Aedes aegypti**. - While a significant public health concern, it is **not included in India's National Vector-Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)**, as it is not endemic to India. *Filariasis* - **Lymphatic filariasis** (elephantiasis) is a major vector-borne disease in India, caused by parasitic worms transmitted by mosquitoes. - It is a key component of the NVBDCP, which focuses on its elimination through **mass drug administration** and vector control. *Malaria* - **Malaria**, caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes, is a cornerstone of the NVBDCP. - The program actively implements strategies for **case detection, treatment, vector control**, and preventing outbreaks. *Kala-azar* - **Kala-azar** (visceral leishmaniasis) is a severe parasitic disease transmitted by **sandflies**, making it a vector-borne disease. - It is one of the six diseases targeted by the NVBDCP for elimination, particularly in endemic regions of India.
Dermatology
1 questionsDermatophytes affect -
NEET-PG 2013 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Dermatophytes affect -
- A. Dermis of skin
- B. Keratin (Correct Answer)
- C. Stratum spongiosum
- D. Stratum basale
Explanation: ***Keratin*** - **Dermatophytes** are a group of fungi that have a unique ability to digest **keratin**, a protein found in **skin, hair, and nails**. - This characteristic allows them to colonize and thrive in these superficial tissues, causing infections like **tinea corporis** (ringworm) or **tinea pedis** (athlete's foot). *Dermis of skin* - The **dermis** is the layer of skin beneath the epidermis, rich in **collagen, elastin, blood vessels, and nerves**. - Dermatophytes do not typically invade the dermis; their infections are generally limited to the **stratum corneum** and other keratinized structures. *Stratum spongiosum* - **Stratum spongiosum** is a term sometimes used to describe an edematous (swollen) epidermis, often seen in **eczema** and **dermatitis**. - Dermatophytes do not target this specific architectural change in the epidermis but rather feed on the keratin present in the more superficial layers. *Stratum basal* - The **stratum basale** (also called stratum germinativum) is the deepest layer of the **epidermis**, responsible for cell division and producing new skin cells. - Dermatophytes primarily infect the **dead keratinized cells** of the stratum corneum rather than the metabolically active cells of the stratum basale.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsLattes' crust test of blood stain is used to detect -
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Lattes' crust test of blood stain is used to detect -
- A. Nature of stain
- B. Blood group
- C. None of the options
- D. Detection of species (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Detection species*** - **Lattes crust test** is a method used in forensic serology to determine the **species origin of a blood stain**. - It involves overlaying a crust of dried blood with **anti-sera** from different animal species to observe for agglutination, indicating a reaction and thus the species. *Nature of stain* - The **nature of the stain** typically refers to whether it is blood, semen, saliva, etc., which is usually determined through preliminary presumptive tests like the **Kastle-Meyer test** for blood. - The **Lattes crust test** specifically aims to identify the species from which the blood originated, not its general nature. *Blood group* - **Blood grouping tests** are designed to determine the ABO, Rh, or other blood types within a single species, typically humans. - While important in forensic investigations, these tests are distinct from the **Lattes crust test**, which focuses on **species identification**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **Lattes crust test** is indeed used for the **detection of species**, making option B the correct answer. - The test has a specific purpose in forensic analysis related to species identification.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsTrue about Ebstein anomaly is ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: True about Ebstein anomaly is ?
- A. Right ventricular dilatation
- B. Right atrial dilatation (Correct Answer)
- C. Left atrial dilatation
- D. Left ventricular dilatation
Explanation: Right atrial dilatation - Ebstein anomaly is characterized by the **apical displacement** of the tricuspid valve leaflets, which incorporates a portion of the right ventricle into the right atrium, functionally increasing its size. - This **atrialization of the right ventricle** leads to significant **right atrial dilatation** as it has to handle a larger volume [1]. *Right ventricular dilatation* - While there is a functional impairment of the right ventricle due to the displaced tricuspid valve, the **working part of the right ventricle** is often small and hypoplastic, not dilated. - The "atrialized" part of the right ventricle contributes to **right atrial dilatation**, not ventricular dilatation [1]. *Left atrial dilatation* - Ebstein anomaly primarily affects the **right side of the heart**, specifically the **tricuspid valve** and right ventricle. - There is no direct anatomical or physiological mechanism in Ebstein anomaly that would typically cause **left atrial dilatation**. *Left ventricular dilatation* - Similar to left atrial dilatation, Ebstein anomaly is a **right-sided heart defect**. - **Left ventricular morphology and function** are generally preserved in Ebstein anomaly, and dilatation is not a characteristic feature.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsUterine rupture is most common in -
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Uterine rupture is most common in -
- A. Posterior lower segment
- B. Upper uterine segment
- C. Lateral uterine wall
- D. Anterior lower segment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anterior lower segment*** - The **anterior lower segment** is the most common site for **uterine rupture** due to prior **cesarean sections** or other uterine surgeries which are often performed anteriorly. - This area is thinner and more prone to stretching and tearing during labor, especially in cases of repeated surgical scars. *Posterior lower segment* - While rupture can occur in the **posterior lower segment**, it is less common than the anterior location. - This area is usually less stressed by previous surgical incisions compared to the anterior wall. *Upper uterine segment* - Rupture in the **upper uterine segment** typically involves an **unscarred uterus** and is a rare event, often associated with a **grand multiparous patient** or **oxytocin hyperstimulation**. - This type of rupture is usually spontaneous and more catastrophic due to the rich vascularity of the upper segment. *Lateral uterine wall* - Rupture of the **lateral uterine wall** is uncommon and usually associated with **trauma** or **manual extraction of the placenta**, rather than prior surgical scars. - It is not the most frequent site for spontaneous or scar-related uterine rupture.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsMost common type of scleritis is
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Most common type of scleritis is
- A. Diffuse anterior
- B. Nodular anterior
- C. Anterior (Correct Answer)
- D. Posterior
Explanation: ***Anterior*** - **Anterior scleritis** accounts for approximately **98%** of all scleritis cases, making it the most common type. - It involves inflammation of the sclera anterior to the **equator of the globe**, visible on external examination. - Anterior scleritis is further subdivided into **diffuse, nodular,** and **necrotizing** forms based on clinical presentation and severity. *Diffuse anterior* - **Diffuse anterior scleritis** is the most common subtype of anterior scleritis, characterized by widespread inflammation. - While common among anterior types, it represents a subset rather than the overall most common anatomical category. *Nodular anterior* - **Nodular anterior scleritis** presents with discrete nodules of inflamed scleral tissue. - It is less common than diffuse anterior scleritis but more common than necrotizing forms. *Posterior* - **Posterior scleritis** is rare, accounting for only about **2%** of all scleritis cases. - It involves inflammation posterior to the **equator of the globe** and can be difficult to diagnose due to its hidden location, often presenting with pain, proptosis, and vision loss.
Physiology
1 questionsHaarscheiben Cells in epidermis are responsible for
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Haarscheiben Cells in epidermis are responsible for
- A. Pressure
- B. Touch (Correct Answer)
- C. Proprioception
- D. Temperature
Explanation: ***Touch*** - **Haarscheiben cells**, also known as **Merkel cells**, are specialized epidermal cells associated with nerve endings. - They are primarily responsible for sensing **light touch** and **discriminative touch**, playing a crucial role in tactile sensation. *Pressure* - While Merkel cells contribute to touch sensation, the primary receptors for **deep pressure** and vibration are **Pacinian corpuscles**, located deeper in the dermis and hypodermis. - Light pressure can be detected by other mechanoreceptors such as **Meissner's corpuscles**. *Proprioception* - **Proprioception** refers to the sense of body position and movement. - Receptors for proprioception are mainly located in **muscles, tendons, and joints** (e.g., muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs), not primarily in the epidermis. *Temperature* - **Temperature sensation** is mediated by **thermoreceptors**, which are free nerve endings in the skin. - These receptors (e.g., Krause end bulbs for cold, Ruffini endings for warmth) are distinct from Haarscheiben/Merkel cells.
Psychiatry
1 questionsIn which therapeutic approach do both the patient and psychotherapist actively participate?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: In which therapeutic approach do both the patient and psychotherapist actively participate?
- A. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Psychodynamic psychotherapy (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Psychodynamic psychotherapy*** - This approach involves **active, collaborative participation** from both the patient and the therapist in exploring emotional conflicts and interpersonal patterns. - The therapy is conducted **face-to-face** with bidirectional dialogue, where both parties actively engage in the therapeutic process. - The therapist takes an **active role** in questioning, clarifying, and interpreting, while the patient actively participates in discussions about their experiences. *Psychoanalytic psychotherapy* - This is also an **interactive approach** where both patient and therapist actively participate, distinguishing it from classical psychoanalysis. - It involves **face-to-face sessions** with active dialogue and collaboration between patient and therapist. - **Note:** In modern practice, the distinction between psychodynamic and psychoanalytic psychotherapy has become blurred, and both involve active participation. *Psychoanalysis* - This is the **classical Freudian approach** where the patient lies on a couch and free associates, with the analyst maintaining a position of **neutrality and anonymity**. - The analyst offers **infrequent interpretations** and maintains minimal interaction, making it less actively collaborative compared to psychodynamic/psychoanalytic psychotherapy. - This represents the **least interactive** of the psychoanalytically-oriented therapies. *All of the options* - While psychodynamic and psychoanalytic psychotherapy both involve active participation, **classical psychoanalysis** does not emphasize active bidirectional collaboration in the same way. - The key distinction is that psychoanalysis maintains therapist neutrality with minimal active engagement, whereas psychodynamic psychotherapy specifically emphasizes **mutual, active participation** in the therapeutic process.
Radiology
2 questionsNormal prevertebral soft tissue thickness in adults at C3 level is
Flask shaped heart is seen in –
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1491: Normal prevertebral soft tissue thickness in adults at C3 level is
- A. 7 mm (Correct Answer)
- B. 15 mm
- C. 22 mm
- D. 30 mm
Explanation: ***7 mm*** * The normal prevertebral soft tissue thickness in adults at the **C3 level** is approximately **7 mm** (upper limit 5-7 mm) on a lateral cervical spine radiograph. * The **C1-C4 levels** have relatively thin prevertebral soft tissue as they lie above the hypopharynx and esophagus. * Exceeding this measurement can indicate **prevertebral hematoma, edema, abscess**, or other pathologies such as retropharyngeal abscess or cervical spine fracture with soft tissue swelling. *Incorrect: 15 mm* * A measurement of 15 mm at the **C3 level** would be considered **abnormal** and indicates prevertebral soft tissue swelling. * This value exceeds the normal limit by more than double and warrants further investigation. *Incorrect: 22 mm* * A measurement of 22 mm at the **C3 level** is significantly **abnormal** and highly suggestive of serious pathology such as retropharyngeal hematoma, abscess, or cervical spine injury. * Note that 22 mm may be within normal limits at the **C6-C7 level** where the esophagus widens the prevertebral space. *Incorrect: 30 mm* * 30 mm is severely abnormal at the **C3 level**. * While prevertebral soft tissue thickness can be greater at lower cervical levels (C5-C7) due to the esophagus, even at those levels 30 mm would suggest pathology. * Such measurements indicate significant conditions like large hematoma, abscess, or tumor.
Question 1492: Flask shaped heart is seen in –
- A. Pericardial effusion (Correct Answer)
- B. TOF
- C. Ebstein anomaly
- D. TAPVC
Explanation: ***Pericardial effusion*** - A **"flask-shaped"** or **"water bottle-shaped" heart** on chest X-ray is a classic finding in significant pericardial effusion. - This appearance results from the accumulation of a large amount of fluid in the **pericardial sac**, which causes the cardiac silhouette to enlarge symmetrically and assume a globular shape. *TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot)* - TOF typically presents with a **"boot-shaped" heart** (coeur en sabot) on chest X-ray due to right ventricular hypertrophy and a concave pulmonary artery segment. - This morphology is distinctly different from the flask-shaped appearance of pericardial effusion. *Ebstein anomaly* - Ebstein anomaly is characterized by apical displacement of the tricuspid valve, leading to **massive right atrial enlargement**. - On chest X-ray, this often results in a **markedly enlarged oval-shaped heart**, which can be quite massive but does not typically have the distinct flask/water bottle shape. *TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection)* - TAPVC can present with different X-ray findings depending on the type, but a classic finding for the supracardiac type is a **"snowman" or "figure-of-8" heart** in children. - This appearance is due to the dilated superior vena cava and anomalous veins draining to it, not a flask shape.