Anesthesiology
5 questionsRegarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?
Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?
Which of the following anesthetic agents causes the LEAST severe complications when accidentally injected intra-arterially?
Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery?
Which of the following statements about Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is true?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Regarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?
- A. It is painful on injecting intravenously
- B. It has no muscle relaxant property
- C. It is used as an intravenous induction agent
- D. It causes severe vomiting (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It causes severe vomiting*** - Propofol is actually known for its **antiemetic properties**, meaning it helps *prevent* rather than cause nausea and vomiting. - This makes it a preferred anesthetic for procedures where **postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)** are a concern. *It is used as an intravenous induction agent* - **Propofol** is a widely used **intravenous anesthetic** for the **induction and maintenance of general anesthesia**. - It provides a rapid onset of unconsciousness due to its high lipid solubility. *It is painful on injecting intravenously* - Injection of propofol can often cause **pain at the injection site**, particularly when administered into smaller veins. - This pain can be mitigated by co-administering **lidocaine** or using larger veins. *It has no muscle relaxant property* - Propofol does **not possess intrinsic muscle relaxant properties**; patients require additional neuromuscular blocking agents for surgical relaxation. - It facilitates intubation by causing **loss of consciousness** and **reducing airway reflexes**, but does not directly relax skeletal muscles.
Question 1282: Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?
- A. Enflurane
- B. Sevoflurane
- C. Halothane
- D. Desflurane (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Desflurane** - **Desflurane** has the highest **global warming potential (GWP)** among commonly used volatile anesthetics, primarily due to its long atmospheric half-life and potent infrared absorption. - Its environmental impact is also amplified by its high **minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)** and low blood solubility, requiring higher delivered concentrations for anesthesia. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** has a lower GWP compared to desflurane and is less commonly used in modern practice. - While it contributes to the greenhouse effect, its impact is significantly less than that of desflurane due to differences in chemical structure and atmospheric persistence. *Sevoflurane* - **Sevoflurane** has a relatively low GWP and a short atmospheric half-life compared to desflurane, making it a more environmentally friendly option among volatile anesthetics. - Although it still contributes to atmospheric warming, its overall environmental impact is considerably less than desflurane's. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is a potent greenhouse gas but is no longer used in many parts of the world due to concerns about hepatotoxicity and its significant ozone-depleting potential. - While it contributes to atmospheric warming, its current lack of clinical use limits its ongoing contribution to the greenhouse effect compared to currently utilized agents.
Question 1283: Which of the following anesthetic agents causes the LEAST severe complications when accidentally injected intra-arterially?
- A. Thiopentone
- B. Propofol (Correct Answer)
- C. Methohexitone
- D. Midazolam
Explanation: **Propofol** * **Propofol** has a relatively low incidence and severity of complications if accidentally injected intra-arterially because of its **lipid emulsion formulation** and mild irritant properties compared to other agents. * While any intra-arterial injection can cause problems, the milder venoconstriction and less direct tissue damage make its intra-arterial complication profile less severe than alternative agents. *Thiopentone* * **Thiopentone** (Thiopental) is highly alkaline, and accidental intra-arterial injection can cause **intense pain**, **vasospasm**, and **gangrene** due to precipitation in the arterioles and widespread endothelial damage. * This severe complication arises from its extreme pH and crystal formation, leading to profound ischemia. *Midazolam* * Accidental intra-arterial injection of **Midazolam** can cause **pain**, **spasm**, and **local tissue damage** due to its relatively acidic pH and solvent properties, though generally less severe than thiopentone. * While not as catastrophic as thiopentone, it can still lead to significant discomfort and localized vascular issues. *Methohexitone* * **Methohexitone** is also an alkaline barbiturate derivative, similar in nature to thiopentone, and its intra-arterial injection carries a significant risk of **vasospasm**, **pain**, and potentially **tissue necrosis**. * Its strong irritant properties and ability to precipitate within the vasculature make it a dangerous agent for inadvertent intra-arterial administration.
Question 1284: Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery?
- A. Halothane
- B. Enflurane
- C. Isoflurane (Correct Answer)
- D. N2O
Explanation: ***Isoflurane*** - **Isoflurane** is preferred in neurosurgery due to its minimal impact on **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure (ICP)**, allowing cerebral autoregulation to be largely preserved. - It maintains **cerebral perfusion pressure** well and has a relatively fast onset and offset, facilitating neurological assessment post-operatively. *Halothane* - **Halothane** significantly increases **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure (ICP)**, which is undesirable in neurosurgical patients. - Its slow elimination can prolong recovery and neurological assessment, making it unsuitable for neurosurgery. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** can cause central nervous system excitation and has been associated with **seizure activity** at higher concentrations, making it contraindicated in neurosurgical procedures. - Like halothane, it can also increase **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure**. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide (N2O)** should be avoided in neurosurgery, especially if there's a risk of **intracranial air** or **pneumocephalus**, as it can expand air-filled spaces and increase ICP. - It also has a weak anesthetic effect and is often combined with other agents, but its cerebral vasodilatory properties can still be problematic.
Question 1285: Which of the following statements about Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is true?
- A. Least potent inhalational anesthetic (Correct Answer)
- B. Lighter than air
- C. Effective muscle relaxant
- D. Does not cause diffusion hypoxia
Explanation: **Least potent inhalational anesthetic** - Nitrous oxide has a **high Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)** of approximately 104%, making it the least potent of the commonly used inhalational anesthetics. - Its high MAC means a very high concentration is required to achieve surgical anesthesia, which is why it is typically used as an adjunct to more potent agents. *Lighter than air* - The molecular weight of nitrous oxide (N2O) is 44, which is **heavier than air** (average molecular weight approximately 29 g/mol). - Its density is greater than air, meaning it would tend to sink rather than rise. *Effective muscle relaxant* - Nitrous oxide provides **minimal to no skeletal muscle relaxation** benefits. - If muscle relaxation is required, a neuromuscular blocking agent must be administered separately. *Does not cause diffusion hypoxia* - Nitrous oxide rapidly diffuses out of the blood into the alveoli during emergence, diluting the oxygen and carbon dioxide there. - This rapid diffusion can lead to **diffusion hypoxia** (also known as the "second gas effect"), necessitating the administration of 100% oxygen during recovery to prevent this complication.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following medications is not typically used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of the following medications is not typically used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
- A. Beta blockers (Correct Answer)
- B. Papaverine
- C. Sildenafil
- D. PG-E
Explanation: ***Beta blockers*** - **Beta blockers** are primarily used to treat conditions like **hypertension** and **heart disease**. - While they can cause ED as a side effect, they are **not used for its treatment**. *Sildenafil* - **Sildenafil** is a **PDE5 inhibitor** that works by increasing **blood flow to the penis**, facilitating an erection. - It is a **first-line oral medication** widely prescribed for erectile dysfunction. *PG-E* - **PG-E** refers to **Prostaglandin E1** (alprostadil), which can be administered via **intracavernosal injection** or **urethral suppository**. - It directly causes **vasodilation** in the penis, leading to an erection, and is used when oral medications are ineffective or contraindicated. *Papaverine* - **Papaverine** is a **non-specific vasodilator** that can be used as an **intracavernosal injection** for ED. - It works by relaxing **smooth muscle** in the penile arteries, increasing blood flow and inducing an erection, often used in combination with phentolamine.
Psychiatry
4 questionsWhich of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?
The delusion that involves the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by someone else is known as?
Which of the following is the most classic example of a delusion?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
- A. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
- B. Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)
- C. Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder) (Correct Answer)
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)*** - **Conversion disorder** is characterized by neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**, yet are not intentionally produced. - It falls under **somatic symptom and related disorders** because the primary features are physical symptoms causing distress or functional impairment, rather than being malingered or feigned. *Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)* - **Phobic disorders** are classified under **anxiety disorders** in the DSM-5, not somatic symptom and related disorders. - They are primarily characterized by **intense, irrational fears** of specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance rather than prominent physical symptoms without a medical cause. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)* - **PTSD** is classified under **trauma- and stressor-related disorders** in the DSM-5, distinguished by symptoms developing after exposure to a traumatic event. - Its core features include **intrusive memories, avoidance, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity**, rather than unexplained physical symptoms. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - **OCD** is classified under **obsessive-compulsive and related disorders** in the DSM-5. - It is primarily characterized by the presence of **obsessions (recurrent, intrusive thoughts)** and/or **compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts)**, which are distinct from somatic symptoms.
Question 1282: According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?
- A. 1 week
- B. 3 weeks
- C. 2 weeks
- D. 1 month (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1 month*** - According to **DSM-5 criteria**, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting more than **1 day** but less than **1 month**. - If psychotic symptoms persist for **1 month or longer**, it indicates a different diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder or schizophrenia, requiring further evaluation. *1 week* - While psychotic symptoms may be present for 1 week in brief psychotic disorder, this duration is within the disorder's diagnostic window but not its defining upper limit. - The key differentiator for brief psychotic disorder is that symptoms resolve within **1 month**. *2 weeks* - Similar to 1 week, 2 weeks is a duration that can occur within brief psychotic disorder, but it does not represent the minimum duration that distinguishes it from longer-term conditions. - The crucial threshold for duration in brief psychotic disorder is **less than 1 month**. *3 weeks* - Three weeks also falls within the diagnostic duration for brief psychotic disorder. - The essential criteria specify that psychotic symptoms must last **less than 1 month** to be classified as brief psychotic disorder.
Question 1283: The delusion that involves the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by someone else is known as?
- A. Capgras syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Cotard syndrome
- C. Othello syndrome
- D. Fregoli syndrome
Explanation: ***Capgras syndrome*** - This **delusional misidentification syndrome** is characterized by the belief that a familiar person (e.g., a spouse, child, or parent) has been replaced by an identical imposter. - It often occurs in individuals with **schizophrenia**, **dementia**, or following **brain injury**. *Cotard syndrome* - This syndrome involves a nihilistic delusion where the individual believes they are **dead**, do not exist, or have lost their organs or blood. - It is often associated with severe **depression**, psychosis, or neurological disorders. *Othello syndrome* - Also known as **delusional jealousy**, this involves the unfounded belief that one's partner is being unfaithful. - It is a **primary delusional disorder** but can also be seen in conditions like alcohol dependence or neurodegenerative diseases. *Fregoli syndrome* - This is another **delusional misidentification syndrome** where the person believes that different people are actually the same person in disguise. - It is the opposite of Capgras syndrome and may occur in **schizophrenia** or **organic brain disorders**.
Question 1284: Which of the following is the most classic example of a delusion?
- A. Othello syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Pyromania
- C. Kleptomania
- D. De Clérambault's syndrome
Explanation: ***Othello syndrome*** - **Othello syndrome**, also known as **delusional jealousy**, is characterized by a *fixed, unfounded belief* that one's partner is being unfaithful. - This is a classic example of a **delusion** because it involves a **fixed, false belief** that is firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary and is not amenable to logic or persuasion. - The syndrome demonstrates all core features of a delusion: **unshakeable conviction**, **imperviousness to contradictory evidence**, and **significant impact on behavior**. *De Clérambault's syndrome* - **De Clérambault's syndrome**, or **erotomania**, is a delusional disorder where an individual *believes another person, often of higher status, is in love with them*. - While this is also a classic example of a delusional disorder, **Othello syndrome** is more frequently cited in clinical teaching as the prototypical example of an isolated, circumscribed delusion. *Pyromania* - **Pyromania** is an **impulse control disorder** characterized by recurrent, deliberate fire-setting driven by tension or arousal. - It involves **behavioral impulsivity** and *not a fixed false belief*, thus it is not a delusion. *Kleptomania* - **Kleptomania** is another **impulse control disorder** characterized by recurrent failure to resist urges to steal objects not needed for personal use. - Like pyromania, it represents a **disorder of impulse control** rather than a disorder of thought content or belief system.