NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Drug of choice for Bier's block ?

Lidocaine. ***Lidocaine*** - **Lidocaine** is the preferred local anesthetic for **Bier's block** (intravenous regional anesthesia) due to its rapid onset and good safety profile. - Its relatively short duration of action and **minimal cardiotoxicity** upon systemic release are favorable for this technique. *Bupivacaine* - **Bupivacaine** has a **longer duration of action** and is associated with a higher risk of **cardiotoxicity** when inadvertently delivered systemically, making it less suitable for Bier's block. - Its use in Bier's block is generally avoided due to the potential for significant adverse events if the tourniquet malfunctions or is released prematurely. *Etidocaine* - **Etidocaine** is a potent, **long-acting local anesthetic** with a similar toxicity profile to bupivacaine, making it less ideal for Bier's block. - Its prolonged action and higher potential for systemic toxicity make it less favorable for a procedure where rapid washout and lower systemic risk are desired. *Ropivacaine* - **Ropivacaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic with a similar efficacy to bupivacaine but with a **lower potential for cardiotoxicity**. - While safer than bupivacaine, **lidocaine** is still generally preferred for Bier's block due to its established safety record, faster onset, and lower cost.

Q: What is the treatment for granuloma inguinale?

Azithromycin. ***Azithromycin*** - **Azithromycin** is the recommended first-line treatment for **granuloma inguinale** (donovanosis) caused by *Klebsiella granulomatis*. - Current recommended regimens: **Azithromycin 1g orally once weekly** OR **500mg daily for at least 3 weeks** (until all lesions have completely healed). - Preferred due to excellent tissue penetration, good efficacy, and convenient dosing that improves patient compliance. *Tetracycline* - **Tetracycline** (500mg four times daily) was historically used but has been largely replaced by **doxycycline** (100mg twice daily) as the preferred tetracycline-class antibiotic. - While effective against *Klebsiella granulomatis*, it requires frequent dosing leading to poor adherence. - **Doxycycline** (not listed here) is actually considered a co-first-line option alongside azithromycin in current CDC guidelines. *Clarithromycin* - **Clarithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic but is not a recommended first-line agent for granuloma inguinale. - Limited clinical data supports its use for this condition, and it is not included in standard treatment guidelines. - Azithromycin from the same macrolide class is preferred due to better-established efficacy. *Streptomycin* - **Streptomycin** is an aminoglycoside antibiotic primarily used for mycobacterial infections (e.g., tuberculosis, plague). - Not indicated for granuloma inguinale as *Klebsiella granulomatis* responds well to macrolides (azithromycin) and tetracyclines (doxycycline). - Requires parenteral administration and has significant toxicity concerns (ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity).

Q: What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?

Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes. ***Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes*** - **Septic arthritis** is characterized by an acute infection within the joint, leading to a profound inflammatory response with a significant influx of **neutrophils** (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) into the synovial fluid. - A synovial leukocyte count greater than **50,000 cells/mm³** with over **75% neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis. *Clear and straw-colored fluid* - This description typically corresponds to **normal synovial fluid** or fluid from a mild **non-inflammatory condition**, which is not consistent with bacterial infection. - Normal synovial fluid is usually **transparent**, indicating the absence of significant cellular debris or inflammatory cells. *Low viscosity fluid* - While septic synovial fluid can have reduced viscosity due to the breakdown of **hyaluronic acid** by bacterial enzymes and inflammatory mediators, this characteristic alone is not the most definitive diagnostic feature. - Reduced viscosity is also observed in other inflammatory conditions, making it less specific than direct cellular analysis for diagnosing infection. *Cloudy or purulent fluid* - The presence of **cloudy** or **purulent (pus-like)** fluid *is* often seen in septic arthritis, reflecting the high cell count and protein content. - However, this is a **gross visual observation**, and a more precise and diagnostic indicator is the microscopic finding of markedly increased **polymorphonuclear leukocytes**.

Q: What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?

Within 3 weeks. **Correct Answer: Within 3 weeks** - The highest risk of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** after IUD insertion is typically observed in the **first 20 days (approximately 3 weeks)** post-insertion. - This elevated risk is mainly due to the potential introduction of **bacteria** from the vagina or cervix into the uterus during the insertion process. - Studies show that the risk of PID is **6-fold higher** in the first 20 days compared to later periods. *Incorrect: Within 5 weeks* - While PID can occur after 3 weeks, the **highest incidence** is concentrated in the earlier period (first 3 weeks). - The risk significantly **decreases after the initial weeks**, suggesting that the critical window for bacterial ascent is shorter. *Incorrect: Within 7 weeks* - By 7 weeks, the risk of developing PID attributable to IUD insertion becomes **negligible** compared to the general population. - Most infections that manifest beyond the initial month are usually due to **newly acquired sexually transmitted infections (STIs)**, not the insertion itself. *Incorrect: Within 14 weeks* - At 14 weeks, any PID development is generally **not linked to the IUD insertion event** but rather to other risk factors like new sexual partners or untreated STIs. - The immediate trauma and potential bacterial contamination from the insertion procedure have **long ceased to be the primary cause** of infection.

Q: What percentage of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube?

90%. ***90%*** - Approximately **90-95%** of all ectopic pregnancies occur within the fallopian tube, making it the most common site. - The **ampulla** is the most frequent tubal site, accounting for about 80% of tubal ectopics, followed by the isthmus and fimbrial end. *75%* - While a significant percentage, **75%** falls short of the actual prevalence of tubal ectopic pregnancies. - This percentage does not accurately reflect the high frequency of implantation within the fallopian tube. *80%* - **80%** is a common statistic for ectopic pregnancies occurring in the **ampulla** specifically, which is a segment of the fallopian tube. - However, the overall percentage for all fallopian tube locations is higher than 80%. *67%* - **67%** is too low and does not represent the vast majority of ectopic pregnancies that are found within the fallopian tube. - Such a low percentage would imply a higher incidence of ectopic pregnancies in other locations (e.g., ovary, cervix, abdomen), which is not the case.

Q: Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?

Thyroid carcinoma. ***Thyroid carcinoma*** - **Papillary** and **medullary thyroid carcinomas** can produce **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - In **papillary thyroid cancer**, calcification occurs due to **psammoma bodies** (concentrically laminated calcified structures). - In **medullary thyroid cancer**, calcification can occur through **dystrophic calcification** within the tumor tissue. - Other common causes of calcified lung metastases include **osteosarcoma** and **chondrosarcoma**. *Pancreatic carcinoma* - Pancreatic carcinoma rarely causes **calcified pulmonary metastases**; metastatic lesions are typically **non-calcified**. - Metastases are more commonly found in the **liver** and **peritoneum**. - Primary pancreatic tumors may show calcification, but metastases usually do not. *Endometrial carcinoma* - Endometrial carcinoma metastases to the lungs are usually **non-calcified** and appear as **soft tissue nodules**. - While it can metastasize to the lungs, **calcification** is not a typical feature of its pulmonary spread. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **thyroid carcinoma** (particularly papillary type) is a well-recognized cause of **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - Among epithelial malignancies, thyroid carcinoma is one of the classic causes of this finding.

Q: What is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?

Buspirone. ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is effective for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and has a lower risk of dependence and sedation compared to benzodiazepines. - It acts as a partial agonist at **5-HT1A serotonin receptors**, which contributes to its anxiolytic effects without affecting GABAergic systems. *β-blocker* - **β-blockers** are primarily used to manage the **physical symptoms of anxiety**, such as palpitations and tremors, often in performance anxiety, rather than the core cognitive and emotional symptoms of GAD. - They do not address the underlying psychological aspects of generalized anxiety. *Alprazolam* - **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** that provides rapid relief of anxiety symptoms but carries a significant risk of **dependence, withdrawal, and sedation**, making it less suitable for long-term treatment of GAD. - Due to these risks, benzodiazepines are typically reserved for short-term use or acute anxiety management rather than as a first-line treatment for chronic GAD. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is an **antiepileptic drug** primarily used to treat seizures and does not have a recognized role in the management of generalized anxiety disorder. - Its mechanism of action involves stabilizing neuronal membranes and is unrelated to the neurochemical pathways targeted in anxiety disorders.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true about type 1 schizophrenia?

It has a poor prognosis.. ***It has a poor prognosis.*** - This statement is **NOT true** about type 1 schizophrenia, making it the correct answer to this question. - Type 1 schizophrenia is generally associated with a **better prognosis** and good response to antipsychotic medication. - It is characterized by the prominence of **positive symptoms**, which tend to be more responsive to treatment. *It is an acute illness.* - This statement is **TRUE** about type 1 schizophrenia, so it is not the answer. - Type 1 schizophrenia is often characterized by an **acute onset** of symptoms, particularly positive symptoms. - This acute presentation differentiates it from type 2, which typically has a more insidious onset. *Intellect is usually maintained.* - This statement is **TRUE** about type 1 schizophrenia, so it is not the answer. - In type 1 schizophrenia, **cognitive function**, including intellect, is usually better preserved compared to type 2 schizophrenia. - While some cognitive deficits may occur, they are generally less severe and less pervasive than in type 2. *It is characterized by negative symptoms.* - This statement is **FALSE** about type 1 schizophrenia, but it is not the best answer because the prognosis statement is more definitively incorrect. - Type 1 schizophrenia is primarily characterized by the predominance of **positive symptoms**, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thought. - **Negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, alogia, blunted affect) are the hallmark of type 2 schizophrenia.

Q: The Doppler effect in medical ultrasound is caused by:

Change in frequency of sound. ***Change in frequency of sound*** - The **Doppler effect** in medical ultrasound is fundamentally based on **frequency changes** that occur when sound waves reflect off moving structures like blood cells or tissues. - When ultrasound waves encounter moving objects, the frequency of reflected waves **shifts upward** (if moving toward transducer) or **shifts downward** (if moving away), enabling detection and measurement of blood flow and tissue movement. *Change in direction of sound* - While sound waves do change direction through **reflection** at tissue interfaces, this directional change doesn't explain the **frequency shift** characteristic of the Doppler effect. - Direction changes are related to **acoustic impedance** differences between tissues, not the motion-dependent frequency variations used in Doppler imaging. *Change in amplitude of sound* - Changes in **amplitude** relate to the **intensity** or strength of the sound waves, affected by factors like **attenuation** and **scattering**. - Amplitude variations don't create the **frequency shift** that allows Doppler ultrasound to detect moving structures and measure velocities. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **frequency change** is indeed the correct mechanism underlying the Doppler effect in medical ultrasound. - The frequency shift phenomenon is what enables **color Doppler**, **pulsed-wave Doppler**, and **continuous-wave Doppler** imaging techniques to function.

Q: Which of the following conditions is the MOST COMMON cause of rib notching?

Coarctation of aorta. ***Coarctation of aorta*** - **Coarctation of the aorta** is the classic and **most common cause** of rib notching. - The notching is caused by the enlargement and tortuosity of the **intercostal arteries** as they provide collateral circulation to bypass the narrowed aorta. *Chronic superior venacava obstruction* - Chronic superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction may lead to the development of collateral circulation through the azygos and hemiazygos veins, but it does **not typically cause rib notching**. - Rib notching is specifically related to collateral flow bypassing an aortic obstruction, not a venous obstruction. *Atrial septal defect* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a communication between the atria that can lead to right heart volume overload and pulmonary hypertension. - While it's a congenital heart defect, an ASD does **not cause rib notching** as it does not involve an obstruction of systemic arterial flow requiring collateral circulation via the intercostal arteries. *Congenital interruption of aorta* - While **congenital interruption of the aorta** also involves an aortic obstruction, it is a **much rarer condition** than coarctation of the aorta. - Due to its rarity, it is not considered the most common cause of rib notching, even though it would theoretically lead to similar collateral vessel formation.

Question 1

Drug of choice for Bier's block ?

Accepted Answer

Lidocaine

Answer

Bupivacaine

Answer

Etidocaine

Answer

Ropivacaine

Question 2

What is the treatment for granuloma inguinale?

Accepted Answer

Azithromycin

Answer

Tetracycline

Answer

Clarithromycin

Answer

Streptomycin

Question 3

What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?

Accepted Answer

Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Answer

Clear and straw-colored fluid

Answer

Low viscosity fluid

Answer

Cloudy or purulent fluid

Question 4

What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?

Accepted Answer

Within 3 weeks

Answer

Within 5 weeks

Answer

Within 7 weeks

Answer

Within 14 weeks

Question 5

What percentage of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube?

Accepted Answer

90%

Answer

75%

Answer

80%

Answer

67%

Question 6

Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Thyroid carcinoma

Answer

Pancreatic carcinoma

Answer

Endometrial carcinoma

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

What is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?

Accepted Answer

Buspirone

Answer

Alprazolam

Answer

Phenytoin

Answer

β-blocker

Question 8

Which of the following statements is NOT true about type 1 schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

It has a poor prognosis.

Answer

Intellect is usually maintained.

Answer

It is an acute illness.

Answer

It is characterized by negative symptoms.

Question 9

The Doppler effect in medical ultrasound is caused by:

Accepted Answer

Change in frequency of sound

Answer

Change in direction of sound

Answer

Change in amplitude of sound

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Which of the following conditions is the MOST COMMON cause of rib notching?

Accepted Answer

Coarctation of aorta

Answer

Atrial septal defect

Answer

Chronic superior venacava obstruction

Answer

Congenital interruption of aorta

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Psychiatry

Radiology