Internal Medicine
2 questionsAll are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
- A. Prostate
- B. Lung
- C. Brain (Correct Answer)
- D. Thyroid
Explanation: ***Brain*** - The **brain** is not a common site for primary bone metastasis, as bone metastases typically originate from organs like the **breast**, **lung**, and **prostate**. - While brain tumors can metastasize to bone, the reverse (primary bone cancer) occurring here is rare. *Breast* - Breast cancer is one of the **most prevalent sources** of bone metastases, commonly affecting the spine and pelvis. - Symptoms often include **bone pain** and potential fractures due to metastasis. *Brain* - Similar to , while brain tumors can metastasize, **primary cancers** do not commonly originate in the bone. - The **metastatic spread** to the brain from other primary sites is common, but not the other way around. *Breast* - Again, breast cancer commonly leads to **bone metastasis**, accounting for a significant percentage of these cases. - It is important to identify busy metastasis to **manage** symptoms and improve patient outcomes.
Question 1252: What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?
- A. Clear and straw-colored fluid
- B. Low viscosity fluid
- C. Cloudy or purulent fluid
- D. Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes*** - **Septic arthritis** is characterized by an acute infection within the joint, leading to a profound inflammatory response with a significant influx of **neutrophils** (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) into the synovial fluid. - A synovial leukocyte count greater than **50,000 cells/mm³** with over **75% neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis. *Clear and straw-colored fluid* - This description typically corresponds to **normal synovial fluid** or fluid from a mild **non-inflammatory condition**, which is not consistent with bacterial infection. - Normal synovial fluid is usually **transparent**, indicating the absence of significant cellular debris or inflammatory cells. *Low viscosity fluid* - While septic synovial fluid can have reduced viscosity due to the breakdown of **hyaluronic acid** by bacterial enzymes and inflammatory mediators, this characteristic alone is not the most definitive diagnostic feature. - Reduced viscosity is also observed in other inflammatory conditions, making it less specific than direct cellular analysis for diagnosing infection. *Cloudy or purulent fluid* - The presence of **cloudy** or **purulent (pus-like)** fluid *is* often seen in septic arthritis, reflecting the high cell count and protein content. - However, this is a **gross visual observation**, and a more precise and diagnostic indicator is the microscopic finding of markedly increased **polymorphonuclear leukocytes**.
Orthopaedics
4 questionsMost common site of myositis ossificans ?
What is another name for ischial bursitis?
Bunion is commonly seen at ?
Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
- A. Shoulder
- B. Wrist
- C. Quadriceps/Thigh (Correct Answer)
- D. Elbow
Explanation: ***Quadriceps/Thigh*** - The **quadriceps and thigh** muscles are frequently affected due to their common involvement in sports injuries and trauma. - This region is prone to **hematoma formation** after contusions, which can predispose to ectopic bone formation. *Shoulder* - While the shoulder can be affected by myositis ossificans, it is **less common** than the quadriceps. - Traumatic myositis ossificans in the shoulder typically involves the **deltoid muscle**. *Wrist* - Myositis ossificans of the **wrist is rare** and usually occurs after severe trauma or crush injuries. - The small muscle mass and limited direct trauma to the wrist muscles make it an **unlikely primary site**. *Elbow* - Myositis ossificans can occur around the elbow, particularly in the **brachialis muscle**, often following dislocations or fractures. - However, the elbow is still **less commonly affected overall** compared to the large muscle groups of the thigh.
Question 1252: What is another name for ischial bursitis?
- A. Weaver's bottom (Correct Answer)
- B. Trochanteric bursitis
- C. Prepatellar bursitis
- D. Olecranon bursitis
Explanation: ***Weaver's bottom*** - This is a common **colloquial term** for ischial bursitis, describing the condition that can arise from prolonged sitting. - The **ischial bursa** lies between the ischial tuberosity and the gluteus maximus, which can become inflamed from pressure. *Prepatellar bursitis* - This refers to inflammation of the bursa located over the **kneecap**. - It is often called **"housemaid's knee"** due to its association with prolonged kneeling. *Trochanteric bursitis* - This is inflammation of the bursa located over the **greater trochanter of the femur**, on the outer side of the hip. - It causes pain in the **lateral hip region**, often radiating down the thigh. *Olecranon bursitis* - This involves inflammation of the bursa located at the **tip of the elbow** (olecranon process). - It is sometimes called **"student's elbow"** or **"miner's elbow"** due to repetitive trauma or pressure.
Question 1253: Bunion is commonly seen at ?
- A. Great toe MTP joint (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial malleolus
- C. Lateral Malleolus
- D. Shin of tibia
Explanation: ***Great toe MTP joint*** - A bunion, or **hallux valgus**, is a bump that forms on the outside of the **first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint** of the big toe. - This common foot deformity involves structural changes that result in the big toe pointing towards the smaller toes. *Medial malleolus* - The medial malleolus is the bony prominence on the **inside of the ankle**. - It is part of the tibia and forms the inner wall of the ankle joint, not typically where bunions occur. *Lateral Malleolus* - The lateral malleolus is the bony protrusion on the **outside of the ankle**. - It is part of the fibula and forms the outer wall of the ankle joint, unrelated to bunion formation. *Shin of tibia* - The shin refers to the **anterior crest of the tibia**, the large bone in the lower leg. - This area is prone to conditions like shin splints or fractures, but not bunions.
Question 1254: Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?
- A. Fracture supracondylar femur
- B. Fracture supracondylar humerus
- C. Fracture shaft of femur
- D. Fracture shaft of humerus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fracture shaft of humerus*** - While any fracture can theoretically cause vascular injury, **mid-shaft humeral fractures** are less commonly associated with significant **vascular compromise** compared to those around major joints or near critical neurovascular bundles. - The **brachial artery** and its branches are often sufficiently mobile and protected by surrounding musculature in the mid-shaft region, reducing the incidence of direct laceration or entrapment. *Fracture supracondylar femur* - **Supracondylar femur fractures** are in close proximity to the **femoral artery** and its branches in the popliteal fossa. - Displacement of these fractures can easily **lacerate or compress** these vital vessels, leading to high rates of vascular injury. *Fracture supracondylar humerus* - **Supracondylar humerus fractures** in children are notoriously associated with **brachial artery injury** due to the artery's close proximity and fixated position over the joint. - The acute angulation and displacement often seen in these fractures put the artery at significant risk of **kinking, compression, or transection**. *Fracture shaft of femur* - **Femoral shaft fractures** can be associated with significant vascular injury, particularly from **large displaced fragments** or high-energy trauma. - The **superficial femoral artery** and its perforating branches can be torn, leading to substantial hemorrhage or arterial compromise.
Pathology
1 questionsWhat is the most common malignant tumor of the skeletal system?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: What is the most common malignant tumor of the skeletal system?
- A. Chondrosarcoma
- B. Multiple myeloma
- C. Osteosarcoma
- D. Metastasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Metastasis*** - **Skeletal metastasis** is overwhelmingly the most common malignant tumor involving bone, as many primary cancers (e.g., breast, prostate, lung) frequently spread to bone [1]. - While not originating in the bone, these metastatic deposits are malignant neoplasms within the skeletal system, making them the most prevalent. *Multiple myeloma* - This is a **primary malignancy of plasma cells** that arises in the bone marrow, causing destructive bone lesions. - It is the most common **primary malignant bone tumor** in adults, but still less common than metastatic disease. *Osteosarcoma* - This is the most common **primary malignant bone tumor** in **children and adolescents**, primarily affecting long bones [2]. - While a significant primary bone cancer, its incidence is lower than that of metastatic bone disease across all age groups [1]. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a malignant tumor of **cartilage-forming cells** and is the second most common primary bone cancer in adults, after multiple myeloma [3]. - It is much less common than metastatic disease and osteosarcoma [1], [3]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 671-672. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1202. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1204.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhat is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: What is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?
- A. Alprazolam
- B. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
- C. Phenytoin
- D. β-blocker
Explanation: ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is effective for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and has a lower risk of dependence and sedation compared to benzodiazepines. - It acts as a partial agonist at **5-HT1A serotonin receptors**, which contributes to its anxiolytic effects without affecting GABAergic systems. *β-blocker* - **β-blockers** are primarily used to manage the **physical symptoms of anxiety**, such as palpitations and tremors, often in performance anxiety, rather than the core cognitive and emotional symptoms of GAD. - They do not address the underlying psychological aspects of generalized anxiety. *Alprazolam* - **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** that provides rapid relief of anxiety symptoms but carries a significant risk of **dependence, withdrawal, and sedation**, making it less suitable for long-term treatment of GAD. - Due to these risks, benzodiazepines are typically reserved for short-term use or acute anxiety management rather than as a first-line treatment for chronic GAD. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is an **antiepileptic drug** primarily used to treat seizures and does not have a recognized role in the management of generalized anxiety disorder. - Its mechanism of action involves stabilizing neuronal membranes and is unrelated to the neurochemical pathways targeted in anxiety disorders.
Radiology
1 questionsWhich condition is characterized by a 'moth-eaten' appearance of the bones?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which condition is characterized by a 'moth-eaten' appearance of the bones?
- A. Osteoid osteoma
- B. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
- C. Eosinophilic granuloma
- D. Chondromyxoid fibroma
Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma*** [1][2] - Characterized by **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, often described as **moth-eaten** appearance on imaging [1]. - Associated with **elevated serum proteins** and **Bence Jones proteins** in urine, confirming the diagnosis [2]. *Eosinophilic granuloma* - Usually presents with **solitary bone lesions** and is linked to **Langerhans cell histiocytosis** rather than the moth-eaten pattern. - Does not typically cause generalized **lytic bone lesions** seen in cases of multiple myeloma. *Chondromyxoid fibroma* - Generally appears as a **well-defined cortical lesion** and is not associated with a moth-eaten appearance. - It predominantly affects the **metaphysis** of long bones and shows a characteristic **cartilaginous matrix**. *Osteoid osteoma* - Presents with a **nidus** of osteoid formation, leading to localized bone pain, and does not exhibit a moth-eaten consistency. - Tends to cause **cortical bone thickening** rather than the diffuse lytic lesions associated with multiple myeloma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 608. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 616-617.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich type of fracture is most likely to cause exsanguinating blood loss?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which type of fracture is most likely to cause exsanguinating blood loss?
- A. Closed tibial fracture
- B. Open femoral fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Open humeral fracture
- D. Closed humeral fracture
Explanation: ***Open femoral fracture*** - An **open femoral fracture** involves both a break in the **femur** (the largest bone in the body, which houses significant marrow and has an extensive blood supply) and a break in the skin, allowing for direct external bleeding. - The **femur** can bleed up to **1-2 liters internally** even in a closed fracture, and an **open fracture** compounds this risk with direct external blood loss, leading to rapid exsanguination. *Closed tibial fracture* - A **closed tibial fracture** does not involve a break in the skin, so external bleeding is not a primary concern. - While there can be internal bleeding, the **tibia** is smaller than the femur and generally causes less significant blood loss (typically **250-500 mL**) compared to a femoral fracture. *Open humeral fracture* - An **open humeral fracture** involves exposure of the bone to the outside, but the **humerus** is a smaller bone with less marrow volume and blood supply compared to the femur. - While bleeding can be significant, especially if major vessels like the **brachial artery** are damaged, the overall potential for rapid, life-threatening **exsanguination** is less than with a femoral fracture. *Closed humeral fracture* - A **closed humeral fracture** does not involve a break in the skin, limiting blood loss to internal bleeding within the arm. - The **humerus** is a relatively smaller bone and, in a closed fracture, the surrounding tissues can tamponade some of the bleeding, making exsanguinating hemorrhage unlikely.