Internal Medicine
2 questionsA female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the primary cause of a decubitus ulcer?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: A female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor
- B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- C. Cushing's syndrome
- D. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **Hirsutism**, **amenorrhea** (or oligomenorrhea), and **obesity** are classic clinical features of PCOS, reflecting hyperandrogenism and insulin resistance [2]. - PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion and involves chronic anovulation and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound [3], though these are not explicitly mentioned, the constellation of symptoms strongly points to it. *Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor* - While it can cause **hirsutism** and **amenorrhea**, the onset is typically **rapid** and severe, with very high androgen levels, and obesity is not a primary feature. - Ovarian tumors are generally less common than PCOS and may present with a palpable mass or specific imaging findings. *Congenital adrenal hyperplasia* - This genetic condition often presents in childhood or adolescence with varying degrees of **virilization** and menstrual irregularities due to enzyme deficiencies in cortisol synthesis [1]. - While it causes **hirsutism** and potentially **amenorrhea**, obesity is not a direct consequence, and the patient's age of presentation and specific symptom pattern are less typical for adult-onset CAH in this context. *Cushing's syndrome* - Characterized by **central obesity**, **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, **striae**, and proximal muscle weakness due to chronic glucocorticoid excess. - Although it can cause **menstrual irregularities** and mild **hirsutism** [2], the overall clinical picture including the absence of other specific Cushingoid features makes it less likely than PCOS.
Question 1252: What is the primary cause of a decubitus ulcer?
- A. Prolonged pressure on the skin (Correct Answer)
- B. Due to friction and shear forces
- C. Due to trauma or injury
- D. Due to moisture and immobility
Explanation: ***Prolonged pressure on the skin*** - **Sustained pressure** on a bony prominence restricts blood flow, leading to **ischemia** and tissue death [1]. - This **impeded circulation** forms the direct cause of cell damage and ulcer formation [1]. *Due to trauma or injury* - While trauma can damage skin, a **decubitus ulcer** specifically results from **sustained pressure**, not typically from a single traumatic event. - Trauma usually leads to acute wounds, whereas pressure ulcers develop over time due to chronic tissue compromise. *Due to friction and shear forces* - **Friction** (skin rubbing against a surface) and **shear** (skin gliding over bone) contribute to decubitus ulcer development by damaging superficial vessels and tissues. - However, they are secondary factors that exacerbate the effects of **primary prolonged pressure**, rather than the initiating cause. *Due to moisture and immobility* - **Moisture** (e.g., from incontinence) macerates the skin, making it more susceptible to breakdown, and **immobility** prevents pressure relief. - These are significant **risk factors** that create an environment conducive to pressure ulcer formation, but the direct cause remains **sustained pressure** leading to ischemia.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
6 questionsWhich condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?
A patient presents with a history of vaginal prolapse and a painful ulcer on the prolapsed tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the primary maternal cause of fetal macrosomia (large birth weight) in newborns?
Acute PID, the most common route of spread?
What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?
What is the most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?
- A. CA ovary
- B. Adrenal tumours
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **HAIR-AN syndrome** is a specific, severe form of **PCOS**, characterized by **HyperAndrogenism**, **Insulin Resistance**, and severe **Acanthosis Nigricans**. - It represents the most pronounced metabolic and endocrine abnormalities associated with PCOS, often with significant hyperinsulinemia. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis involves the growth of **endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus**, causing pain and infertility. - It is not directly linked to the metabolic and hormonal disturbances seen in HAIR-AN syndrome. *CA ovary* - **Ovarian cancer** is a malignant proliferation of ovarian cells, which is not associated with the unique features of **hyperandrogenism**, **insulin resistance**, or **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - Ovarian tumors can be hormone-producing, but this is distinct from the syndrome's chronic metabolic dysregulation. *Adrenal tumours* - **Adrenal tumors** can cause **hyperandrogenism** in some cases, leading to symptoms like hirsutism, but they typically do not present with the constellation of **insulin resistance** and severe **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - The primary defect in HAIR-AN is ovarian and metabolic, rather than adrenal.
Question 1252: A patient presents with a history of vaginal prolapse and a painful ulcer on the prolapsed tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Carcinoma
- B. Pressure erosion
- C. Syphilis
- D. Decubitus ulcer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Decubitus ulcer*** - A **decubitus ulcer** (pressure sore) is the most likely diagnosis when a patient with a **vaginal prolapse** develops a **painful ulcer** on the prolapsed tissue due to chronic pressure and friction. - The prolapsed tissue is often exposed to constant irritation and lack of proper blood supply, making it susceptible to ulceration. *Carcinoma* - While possible, carcinoma typically presents as a **non-healing lesion** with irregular borders and induration, and is often *not immediately painful* in its early stages. - A definitive diagnosis of carcinoma requires **biopsy and histopathological examination**. *Pressure erosion* - This term is a general description of tissue damage from pressure and can be a precursor to a decubitus ulcer, but **decubitus ulcer** specifically denotes the developed lesion. - It describes the *mechanism of injury* rather than the specific, fully formed ulcer. *Syphilis* - Syphilis causes a **chancre**, which is typically a *painless ulcer* with indurated borders. - It is a sexually transmitted infection, and while it could cause an ulcer, the context of a **vaginal prolapse** points more strongly to a localized pressure injury.
Question 1253: What is the primary maternal cause of fetal macrosomia (large birth weight) in newborns?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperinsulinemia
- C. Multiparity
- D. Post maturity
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Maternal **hyperglycemia**, often due to **gestational diabetes**, leads to increased glucose transfer across the placenta to the fetus. - This excess glucose stimulates increased fetal insulin production, which acts as a growth hormone causing macrosomia. *Hyperinsulinemia* - While fetal **hyperinsulinemia** directly causes macrosomia by increasing fetal growth, it is a **consequence** of maternal hyperglycemia, not the primary cause itself. - Fetal insulin acts as an anabolic hormone, promoting fat and protein synthesis and overall growth. *Multiparity* - **Multiparity** (having given birth to multiple children) is generally associated with moderately higher birth weights, but it is not the primary cause of macrosomia. - The effect is far less significant and consistent than that of maternal hyperglycemia. *Post maturity* - **Post-term pregnancy** (post maturity) can sometimes be associated with a larger birth weight, but this is less common and less pronounced than macrosomia caused by hyperglycemia. - Fetal growth often slows or even declines in prolonged pregnancies due to placental insufficiency.
Question 1254: Acute PID, the most common route of spread?
- A. Descending
- B. Ascending infection (Correct Answer)
- C. Lymphatics
- D. Hematogenous
Explanation: ***Ascending infection*** - **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** most commonly occurs when microorganisms from the **lower genital tract (vagina, cervix)** ascend into the upper genital tract (uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries). - This upward spread leads to infection and inflammation of the endometrium (endometritis), fallopian tubes (salpingitis), and ovaries (oophoritis). *Descending* - A descending route of infection implies spread from an organ superior to the pelvis, which is not the typical mechanism for acute PID. - While infections can sometimes spread from adjacent structures, direct downward spread from non-genital organs is rare for primary PID. *Lymphatics* - While lymphatic spread can occur in some infections, it is not the primary or most common route for the initial onset of acute PID. - Lymphatic spread is more commonly associated with chronic or severe infections, or specific types of pelvic infections like tuberculosis. *Hematogenous* - Hematogenous spread involves pathogens traveling through the bloodstream to reach the pelvic organs. - This route is less common for typical acute PID but can be seen in cases of systemic infections or specific sexually transmitted infections like tuberculosis.
Question 1255: What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?
- A. Within 3 weeks (Correct Answer)
- B. Within 5 weeks
- C. Within 7 weeks
- D. Within 14 weeks
Explanation: **Correct Answer: Within 3 weeks** - The highest risk of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** after IUD insertion is typically observed in the **first 20 days (approximately 3 weeks)** post-insertion. - This elevated risk is mainly due to the potential introduction of **bacteria** from the vagina or cervix into the uterus during the insertion process. - Studies show that the risk of PID is **6-fold higher** in the first 20 days compared to later periods. *Incorrect: Within 5 weeks* - While PID can occur after 3 weeks, the **highest incidence** is concentrated in the earlier period (first 3 weeks). - The risk significantly **decreases after the initial weeks**, suggesting that the critical window for bacterial ascent is shorter. *Incorrect: Within 7 weeks* - By 7 weeks, the risk of developing PID attributable to IUD insertion becomes **negligible** compared to the general population. - Most infections that manifest beyond the initial month are usually due to **newly acquired sexually transmitted infections (STIs)**, not the insertion itself. *Incorrect: Within 14 weeks* - At 14 weeks, any PID development is generally **not linked to the IUD insertion event** but rather to other risk factors like new sexual partners or untreated STIs. - The immediate trauma and potential bacterial contamination from the insertion procedure have **long ceased to be the primary cause** of infection.
Question 1256: What is the most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis?
- A. Amenorrhoea
- B. Vaginal discharge
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Infertility (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Infertility*** - **Infertility** is the most common presenting symptom of **tuberculosis (TB) endometritis**, particularly secondary infertility. - The infection leads to inflammation and scarring of the endometrium and fallopian tubes, impairing implantation and ovum transport. *Abdominal pain* - While **abdominal pain** can occur in TB endometritis, it is typically a less frequent or prominent presenting symptom compared to infertility. - Pain often arises from pelvic inflammation or adhesions but is not the cardinal complaint that prompts diagnosis. *Amenorrhoea* - **Amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) can be a symptom, especially in advanced cases where there is significant destruction of the endometrium. - It is, however, less common than infertility as the initial presenting symptom. *Vaginal discharge* - **Vaginal discharge** is an uncommon symptom of TB endometritis. - When present, it is often non-specific and not characteristic enough to suggest TB as the underlying cause.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which of the following statements about chronic osteomyelitis is false?
- A. Reactive new bone formation
- B. Cloaca is an opening in involucrum
- C. Involucrum is dead bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Sequestrum is hard and dense
Explanation: ***Involucrum is dead bone*** - This statement is false because the **involucrum** is the layer of **new bone formation** that surrounds a segment of necrotic (dead) bone, known as the **sequestrum**, in chronic osteomyelitis [1]. - The involucrum represents the body's attempt to wall off the infection and dead bone, and thus, it is living, *reactive bone*, not dead bone [1]. *Reactive new bone formation* - This statement is true; **reactive new bone formation** occurs around infected or necrotic bone in chronic osteomyelitis, forming the **involucrum** [1]. - This process is a hallmark of the body's response to chronic infection and attempts to contain it. *Cloaca is an opening in involucrum* - This statement is true; a **cloaca** is a **fistulous tract** or opening in the **involucrum** that allows pus and necrotic debris from the infected area to drain to the skin surface. - This drainage is a common clinical sign of chronic osteomyelitis. *Sequestrum is hard and dense* - This statement is true; the **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from living bone due to ischemia and infection [1]. - Due to the loss of blood supply and avascular necrosis, it appears **dense, hard, and radiodense** on imaging, representing devitalized bone tissue that is walled off from the body's immune response. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1197-1198.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) is correct?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) is correct?
- A. Act as agonists on estrogen receptors.
- B. Some SERMs can act as both agonists and antagonists on estrogen receptors. (Correct Answer)
- C. Used to reduce the risk of hot flushes and thromboembolism.
- D. Act as antagonists on estrogen receptors.
Explanation: ***Some SERMs can act as both agonists and antagonists on estrogen receptors.*** - **SERMs** (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators) exert tissue-specific effects, meaning they can act as an **estrogen receptor agonist** in some tissues while acting as an **antagonist** in others. - This **selective mechanism** allows them to confer beneficial estrogenic effects where desired (e.g., bone) and anti-estrogenic effects where unwanted (e.g., breast tissue). *Act as agonists on estrogen receptors.* - This statement is incomplete because while some SERMs can act as **agonists** in certain tissues (e.g., affecting bone density), they are not pure agonists across all tissues. - Their defining characteristic is their **selective action**, exhibiting mixed agonist and antagonist effects depending on the tissue. *Used to reduce the risk of hot flushes and thromboembolism.* - SERMs like **tamoxifen** and **raloxifene** can actually **increase the risk** of both hot flushes and thromboembolism. - **Hot flushes** occur due to their **anti-estrogenic effects** on the hypothalamus, which disrupts thermoregulation. - **Thromboembolism** risk is increased due to their **estrogenic (agonist) effects** on hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors. *Act as antagonists on estrogen receptors.* - This statement is also incomplete because, while some SERMs exhibit **antagonist activity** in certain tissues (e.g., the breast), they simultaneously act as **agonists** in other tissues (e.g., bone or endometrium). - A pure antagonist would block estrogen receptors in all tissues, which is not the defining feature of SERMs.