Dermatology
7 questionsWhat is the most likely diagnosis for a 15 mm hyperpigmented lesion on the shoulder that is enlarging and has hair growing from it?
A 15cm hyperpigmented macule on an adolescent male undergoes changes such as coarseness, growth of hair & acne. Diagnosis is?
What is the treatment for granuloma inguinale?
What percentage of skin involvement is characteristic of erythroderma?
Pathergy test is used for which condition?
Which of the following drugs is effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor?
Skin scraping and KOH mounting is primarily used to diagnose which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: What is the most likely diagnosis for a 15 mm hyperpigmented lesion on the shoulder that is enlarging and has hair growing from it?
- A. Melanocytic nevus
- B. Becker nevus (Correct Answer)
- C. Sebaceous nevus
- D. Comedo nevus
Explanation: ***Correct: Becker nevus*** This diagnosis is supported by the description of a **hyperpigmented lesion** that is **enlarging** and has **hair growing from it**, typically appearing during adolescence or young adulthood. **Becker nevus** often presents as an **irregular, hyperpigmented patch**, usually on the shoulder or upper trunk, and is characteristically associated with **hypertrichosis** (increased terminal hair growth). The combination of location (shoulder), enlargement, and hair growth in a 15 mm lesion is classic for Becker nevus. *Incorrect: Melanocytic nevus* While **melanocytic nevi** are hyperpigmented, they typically do not continue to **enlarge significantly** after childhood and generally do not develop new onset **hypertrichosis** as a primary feature. The size (15 mm) and progressive growth combined with hair development are more characteristic of a Becker nevus than a common melanocytic nevus. *Incorrect: Sebaceous nevus* **Sebaceous nevi** are typically **yellow-orange to tan, waxy plaques**, often on the scalp or face, with a cobblestone or papillomatous texture. They are not primarily characterized by **hyperpigmentation** and terminal hair growth, but rather by sebaceous gland proliferation. *Incorrect: Comedo nevus* A **comedo nevus** presents as a linear or unilateral group of **dilated follicular openings** filled with keratinous material, resembling blackheads. It is not characterized by diffuse **hyperpigmentation** or the increased terminal hair growth described in this case.
Question 1202: A 15cm hyperpigmented macule on an adolescent male undergoes changes such as coarseness, growth of hair & acne. Diagnosis is?
- A. Melanocytic nevus
- B. Becker nevus (Correct Answer)
- C. Sebaceous nevus
- D. Sebaceous adenoma
Explanation: ***Becker nevus*** - A Becker nevus is a **hyperpigmented patch** that typically appears during adolescence in males, often on the shoulder or upper trunk. - It characteristically becomes **hairy (hypertrichosis)**, more coarse, and can develop acne within the lesion, particularly during puberty due to androgen sensitivity. *Melanocytic nevus* - While melanocytic nevi are hyperpigmented, they generally do not show the characteristic changes of **coarseness, significant hair growth, or acne** within the lesion during adolescence. - They are typically stable in size and texture after initial development, with changes raising concern for **melanoma**. *Sebaceous nevus* - A sebaceous nevus is a **congenital lesion** often appearing as a yellowish-orange, waxy, or bumpy patch, usually on the scalp or face. - It does not typically present as a large, flat hyperpigmented macule that develops hair and acne in adolescence; instead, it may become verrucous or develop tumors in adulthood. *Sebaceous adenoma* - A sebaceous adenoma is a **benign tumor** of the sebaceous glands, usually appearing as a small, solitary, flesh-colored to yellowish papule or nodule, especially on the face. - It is not typically seen as a large, hyperpigmented macule that grows hair and acne over a broad area, as described in the question.
Question 1203: What is the treatment for granuloma inguinale?
- A. Tetracycline
- B. Azithromycin (Correct Answer)
- C. Clarithromycin
- D. Streptomycin
Explanation: ***Azithromycin*** - **Azithromycin** is the recommended first-line treatment for **granuloma inguinale** (donovanosis) caused by *Klebsiella granulomatis*. - Current recommended regimens: **Azithromycin 1g orally once weekly** OR **500mg daily for at least 3 weeks** (until all lesions have completely healed). - Preferred due to excellent tissue penetration, good efficacy, and convenient dosing that improves patient compliance. *Tetracycline* - **Tetracycline** (500mg four times daily) was historically used but has been largely replaced by **doxycycline** (100mg twice daily) as the preferred tetracycline-class antibiotic. - While effective against *Klebsiella granulomatis*, it requires frequent dosing leading to poor adherence. - **Doxycycline** (not listed here) is actually considered a co-first-line option alongside azithromycin in current CDC guidelines. *Clarithromycin* - **Clarithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic but is not a recommended first-line agent for granuloma inguinale. - Limited clinical data supports its use for this condition, and it is not included in standard treatment guidelines. - Azithromycin from the same macrolide class is preferred due to better-established efficacy. *Streptomycin* - **Streptomycin** is an aminoglycoside antibiotic primarily used for mycobacterial infections (e.g., tuberculosis, plague). - Not indicated for granuloma inguinale as *Klebsiella granulomatis* responds well to macrolides (azithromycin) and tetracyclines (doxycycline). - Requires parenteral administration and has significant toxicity concerns (ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity).
Question 1204: What percentage of skin involvement is characteristic of erythroderma?
- A. More than 90% (Correct Answer)
- B. Less than 30%
- C. 30% to 60%
- D. 60% to 70%
Explanation: ***More than 90%*** - Erythroderma, also known as **exfoliative dermatitis**, is defined by diffuse redness and scaling involving **more than 90% of the body surface area**. - This extensive involvement leads to significant physiological disturbances due to impaired skin barrier function. *Less than 30%* - Skin involvement less than 30% does not meet the criteria for erythroderma and would be considered more localized dermatological conditions. - This percentage of involvement would typically indicate a benign rash or localized eczema, not a widespread inflammatory process. *30% to 60%* - While significant, 30% to 60% skin involvement is still insufficient to classify a condition as erythroderma. - This range might be seen in severe but still localized forms of conditions like psoriasis or eczema. *60% to 70%* - 60% to 70% involvement is extensive but falls short of the critical threshold for erythroderma. - Although indicating widespread disease, it does not constitute the near-total body erythema and scaling characteristic of erythroderma.
Question 1205: Pathergy test is used for which condition?
- A. Lichen planus
- B. Atopic dermatitis
- C. Behçet's syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Reiter's syndrome
Explanation: ***Behçet's syndrome*** - The **pathergy test** is a diagnostic test where a sterile needle is used to prick the skin, and a positive result (erythematous papule or pustule) indicates a hyperreactivity of the skin, common in **Behçet's syndrome**. - This syndrome is a **vasculitis** characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcers, ocular inflammation, and skin lesions, where pathergy is a characteristic feature. *Lichen planus* - This is an **inflammatory dermatosis** affecting the skin, hair, nails, and mucous membranes, characterized by "6 P's": **Pruritic, Purple, Polygonal, Planar, Papules, and Plaques**. - The pathergy test is **not used** in the diagnosis of lichen planus. *Atopic dermatitis* - Also known as **eczema**, it is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory skin condition characterized by dry, itchy skin and often associated with a personal or family history of allergies, asthma, or allergic rhinitis. - Diagnosis is primarily clinical, focusing on characteristic skin lesions and symptoms, and the **pathergy test is not applicable**. *Reiter's syndrome* - Now known as **reactive arthritis**, this condition is an autoimmune disorder that develops in response to an infection elsewhere in the body, typically genitourinary or gastrointestinal. - It classically presents with **arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis** (Can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree), and the **pathergy test is not used** for its diagnosis.
Question 1206: Which of the following drugs is effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor?
- A. Ketoconazole (Correct Answer)
- B. Metronidazole
- C. Griseofulvin
- D. Chloroquine
Explanation: ***Ketoconazole*** - **Ketoconazole** is an **azoles antifungal agent** effective against the *Malassezia* species, the causative agent of **pityriasis versicolor**. - It works by inhibiting the synthesis of **ergosterol**, a crucial component of the fungal cell membrane, leading to its disruption and fungal cell death. *Metronidazole* - **Metronidazole** is an **antibiotic** and **amoebicide** primarily used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections. - It has **no antifungal activity** and is thus ineffective against *Malassezia* or other fungal infections. *Griseofulvin* - **Griseofulvin** is an **oral antifungal drug** primarily used for **dermatophyte infections** of the skin, hair, and nails (e.g., tinea capitis, onychomycosis). - It is **ineffective against yeasts and molds**, including *Malassezia*, making it unsuitable for pityriasis versicolor. *Chloroquine* - **Chloroquine** is an **antimalarial drug** also used in the treatment of some autoimmune conditions like lupus erythematosus. - It possesses **no antifungal properties** and is not used to treat fungal infections of any kind.
Question 1207: Skin scraping and KOH mounting is primarily used to diagnose which of the following conditions?
- A. Dermatophyte infection (Correct Answer)
- B. Bacterial infection
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
Explanation: ***Dermatophyte infection*** - Skin scraping followed by **KOH mounting** is the **primary and gold standard** diagnostic method for dermatophyte infections - **Potassium hydroxide (KOH)** dissolves keratin, making **fungal hyphae and arthroconidia** clearly visible under microscopy - This is the **most common indication** for KOH preparation in dermatology practice - Demonstrates **septate hyphae** characteristic of dermatophytes *Candidiasis* - KOH mounting can also identify *Candida* species by revealing **pseudohyphae and budding yeast cells** - While KOH can diagnose candidiasis, dermatophyte infections remain the **primary and most frequent indication** for this test in skin lesions - Candida more commonly affects mucosal surfaces where other diagnostic methods may be preferred *Bacterial infection* - Bacterial infections are diagnosed using **Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity** testing - KOH mounting is specifically for **fungal elements** and does not visualize bacteria effectively - Bacterial skin infections require different diagnostic approaches *Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)* - HSV infections are diagnosed using **Tzanck smear** (showing multinucleated giant cells), **viral culture, or PCR** - KOH mounting is exclusively for fungal identification and **cannot detect viruses** - Viral cytopathic effects are not visible with KOH preparation
Internal Medicine
1 questionsAll are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: All are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:
- A. Pyoderma gangrenosum (Correct Answer)
- B. Erythema nodosum
- C. Genital ulcers
- D. Oral ulcers
Explanation: ***Pyoderma gangrenosum*** - While Behçet's syndrome can involve skin lesions, **pyoderma gangrenosum** is not typically part of its diagnostic criteria or common manifestations. - Pyoderma gangrenosum is a distinct neutrophilic dermatosis characterized by rapidly enlarging, painful ulcers. *Erythema nodosum* - **Erythema nodosum** is a common dermatological manifestation in Behçet's syndrome, characterized by tender subcutaneous nodules, usually on the shins. - These lesions reflect the systemic inflammatory nature of the disease in various organs. *Genital ulcers* - **Genital ulcers** are one of the major diagnostic criteria for Behçet's syndrome, often painful and recurrent. - They tend to be deep and can form scars, appearing on the scrotum, penis, labia, or perianal area. *Oral ulcers* - **Recurrent oral aphthous ulcers** are the most common and often the initial symptom of Behçet's syndrome. - These ulcers are typically painful, varying in size, and can occur on any mucosal surface in the mouth.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhich drug is most commonly associated with causing exanthema?
Which drug is most commonly associated with causing fixed drug eruptions?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Which drug is most commonly associated with causing exanthema?
- A. Atropine
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Sulfonamide (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Sulfonamide*** - **Sulfonamides** are among the **most common causes** of drug-induced exanthema (maculopapular/morbilliform rash). - They account for a significant proportion of cutaneous adverse drug reactions, with exanthema being the most frequent presentation. - The mechanism typically involves a **delayed hypersensitivity reaction** (Type IV) to the drug or its metabolites. - **Classic presentation:** Symmetrical, erythematous, maculopapular rash appearing 7-14 days after drug initiation. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** can cause exanthematous eruptions, but it is more notably associated with **severe cutaneous adverse reactions** such as: - **DRESS syndrome** (Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) - **Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)** and **Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)** - While exanthema can occur, **sulfonamides** are more frequently implicated in simple morbilliform rashes. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an anticholinergic agent primarily causing **predictable pharmacological effects**: - Dry mouth, mydriasis, tachycardia, urinary retention - **Allergic skin reactions** with atropine are rare and not a characteristic adverse effect. - Atropine is **not recognized** as a common cause of exanthema. *All of the options* - This is incorrect because **atropine** is not commonly associated with exanthema. - While both sulfonamides and phenytoin can cause exanthema, only **sulfonamides** are considered among the **most common** causes.
Question 1202: Which drug is most commonly associated with causing fixed drug eruptions?
- A. Aminoglycoside
- B. Sulfonamide (Correct Answer)
- C. Erythromycin
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Sulfonamide*** - **Sulfonamides**, particularly **sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim**, are frequently implicated in causing fixed drug eruptions. - A fixed drug eruption characteristically recurs at the **same cutaneous site** each time the offending drug is administered. *Aminoglycoside* - **Aminoglycosides** are broad-spectrum antibiotics known for potential **ototoxicity** and **nephrotoxicity**. - While they can cause various adverse reactions, fixed drug eruptions are **not a common association** with this drug class. *Erythromycin* - **Erythromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic primarily associated with **gastrointestinal side effects**, such as nausea and abdominal cramping. - Although drug eruptions can occur, fixed drug eruptions are **not typically linked** to erythromycin. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **sulfonamides** are well-documented causes of fixed drug eruptions. - Therefore, there is a specific drug class listed that is strongly associated with this condition.