NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Ketamine. ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is known to increase **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, making it generally avoided in patients with glaucoma or penetrating eye injuries. - This effect is thought to be due to its dissociative properties, causing **nystagmus**, and stimulating extraocular muscles. *Nitrous Oxide* - **Nitrous oxide** by itself has minimal or no direct effect on **intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - However, in cases of an air-filled globe (e.g., after retinal detachment surgery), it can increase IOP by expanding the gas bubble. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane**, like most volatile anesthetics, typically **decreases intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This reduction is generally due to its effects on reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is known for its ability to **decrease intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This effect is mediated by a reduction in aqueous humor production and an increase in uveoscleral outflow, making it a favorable choice in ophthalmic surgery.

Q: Which of the following is not classified as a cutaneous porphyria?

Sideroblastic anemia. ***Hereditary coproporphyria*** - This condition is primarily associated with **acute episodes** and **neuropathy**, rather than cutaneous manifestations. [2] - Unlike cutaneous porphyrias, symptoms are more systemic and do not commonly present with **skin lesions**. Although skin features can occur in some instances, they mimic porphyria cutanea tarda. [2] *Congenital erythropoeitic porphyria* - Characterized by severe **cutaneous symptoms** such as blistering and photosensitivity due to **skin exposure**. - Patients exhibit notable **facial disfigurement** and can have **hemolytic anemia**, aligning it clearly with the cutaneous forms of porphyria. *Sideroblastic anemia* - This condition involves issues with **hemoglobin synthesis** and does not fit the porphyria classification. [1] - It primarily presents with **microcytic anemia**, and the symptoms are primarily hematological, not cutaneous. [1] *Erythropoeitic porphyria* - Characterized by **severe photosensitivity** and skin manifestations, similar to congenital erythropoeitic porphyria. [1] - Patients may develop **blisters** and **hyperpigmentation** upon sun exposure, categorizing it among cutaneous porphyrias. [2]

Q: Lines of Blaschko are related to?

Keratinocytes. ***Keratinocytes*** - **Lines of Blaschko** represent the migratory pathways of embryonic cells, primarily **keratinocytes**, in the skin. - These lines are not visible under normal conditions but become apparent in various **genetic skin disorders** where abnormal cells follow these specific patterns. *Blood vessels* - While blood vessels are extensively present in the skin, they do not follow the specific **migratory patterns** described by the Lines of Blaschko. - Their arrangement is more related to **vascular networks** and anatomical supply rather than embryonic cell migration. *Nerves* - **Nerves** in the skin have specific distributions, often following dermatomal patterns, which are distinct from the **Lines of Blaschko**. - Nerve distribution is related to their segmental origin from the **spinal cord**, not the migratory paths of epidermal cells. *Bones* - **Bones** are part of the skeletal system and are not found in the skin, making them unrelated to the **Lines of Blaschko**. - These lines describe epidermal cell migration, which is a feature of the **integumentary system**.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

Perforated nasal septum. ***Perforated nasal septum*** - **Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)**, previously known as **Wegener's granulomatosis**, is characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** and **vasculitis** of small to medium-sized vessels, particularly affecting the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the kidneys [1]. - Damage to the nasal cartilage and bone due to inflammation and vasculitis can lead to a **perforation of the nasal septum**, which is a classic feature. *Nasal polyp* - While nasal polyps can occur in inflammatory conditions, they are **not a specific or highly characteristic feature** of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis compared to septal perforation. - **Allergic rhinitis** or **chronic rhinosinusitis** are more commonly associated with nasal polyps. *Persistent sinusitis* - **Persistent sinusitis** (rhinosinusitis) is a very common initial manifestation of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to upper airway inflammation. - However, it's a **less specific finding** than a perforated septum, as sinusitis can be caused by many other conditions. *Collapse of nasal bridge* - **Collapse of the nasal bridge**, also known as a **saddle nose deformity**, can occur in advanced or destructive cases of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to extensive cartilage and bone destruction. - While possible, a **perforated nasal septum often precedes** or is a more direct, earlier indicator of the destructive process in the nose.

Q: In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

CT angiography. ***CT angiography*** - In a patient with **high clinical suspicion** of pulmonary embolism (PE), CT angiography of the pulmonary arteries is the preferred and often definitive diagnostic test. - It allows for direct visualization of thrombi within the pulmonary arterial tree with high sensitivity and specificity. *D-dimer* - While useful for **ruling out PE** in patients with low or intermediate pre-test probability, a positive D-dimer is non-specific and requires further investigation in high-suspicion cases. - It has a high **negative predictive value** but a low positive predictive value, meaning a normal D-dimer makes PE unlikely, but an elevated one does not confirm it. *Catheter angiography* - This is an **invasive procedure** that is typically reserved for cases where CT angiography is inconclusive or contraindicated, or when interventional treatment is contemplated. - It carries risks such as **bleeding** and **contrast-induced nephropathy**, making it less appropriate as a first-line diagnostic in most situations. *Color Doppler* - Color Doppler ultrasound is primarily used to diagnose **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** in the lower extremities, which is a common source of PE. - It is **not used to directly diagnose PE** in the pulmonary arteries; however, finding a DVT can support the diagnosis of PE indirectly.

Q: At what point does the uterus return to being classified as a pelvic organ after pregnancy?

6 weeks. ***6 weeks*** - By **6 weeks postpartum**, the uterus typically has undergone significant involution, returning to its **pre-pregnancy size and weight**. - At this point, it is no longer palpable abdominally and descends back into the **pelvic cavity**, classifying it again as a pelvic organ. *4 weeks* - While significant involution occurs by 4 weeks, the uterus is generally still slightly enlarged and might be palpable just above the **symphysis pubis**. - It has not fully returned to its non-pregnant size or its definitive location as a purely pelvic organ at this stage. *12 weeks* - By 12 weeks postpartum, the uterus has long since returned to its pre-pregnancy size and relocated to the **pelvic cavity**; this period is past the typical time for reclassification. - Involution is generally complete earlier than 12 weeks. *2 weeks* - At 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus is still undergoing rapid **involution** but is significantly larger than its pre-pregnancy size. - It remains palpable abdominally, usually midway between the **umbilicus** and the pubic symphysis, and has not yet descended back into the pelvic cavity.

Q: Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?

Fracture shaft of humerus. ***Fracture shaft of humerus*** - While any fracture can theoretically cause vascular injury, **mid-shaft humeral fractures** are less commonly associated with significant **vascular compromise** compared to those around major joints or near critical neurovascular bundles. - The **brachial artery** and its branches are often sufficiently mobile and protected by surrounding musculature in the mid-shaft region, reducing the incidence of direct laceration or entrapment. *Fracture supracondylar femur* - **Supracondylar femur fractures** are in close proximity to the **femoral artery** and its branches in the popliteal fossa. - Displacement of these fractures can easily **lacerate or compress** these vital vessels, leading to high rates of vascular injury. *Fracture supracondylar humerus* - **Supracondylar humerus fractures** in children are notoriously associated with **brachial artery injury** due to the artery's close proximity and fixated position over the joint. - The acute angulation and displacement often seen in these fractures put the artery at significant risk of **kinking, compression, or transection**. *Fracture shaft of femur* - **Femoral shaft fractures** can be associated with significant vascular injury, particularly from **large displaced fragments** or high-energy trauma. - The **superficial femoral artery** and its perforating branches can be torn, leading to substantial hemorrhage or arterial compromise.

Q: Pavlov's experiment is an example of which of the following learning theories?

Classical conditioning. ***Classical conditioning*** - Pavlov's experiment with dogs, where he conditioned them to **salivate** at the sound of a bell, is the quintessential example of **classical conditioning**. - This learning theory involves forming an association between a **neutral stimulus** (the bell) and a **natural stimulus** (food) that produces an involuntary response (salivation). *Modeling* - **Modeling**, or observational learning, involves learning by **observing and imitating** others. - This theory is associated with **Albert Bandura** and his Bobo doll experiment, which is different from Pavlov's stimulus-response pairing. *Operant conditioning* - **Operant conditioning** involves learning through **rewards and punishments** for voluntary behaviors. - This theory is primarily associated with **B.F. Skinner**, where an organism learns to associate a behavior with its consequences. *Learned helplessness* - **Learned helplessness** occurs when an individual or animal learns that they have no control over negative situations, leading to a sense of powerlessness and **giving up**. - This concept was developed by **Martin Seligman** and is not related to Pavlov's experiments on associative learning.

Q: What condition is indicated by the double bubble sign on an abdominal X-ray?

Duodenal atresia. ***Duodenal atresia*** - The **double bubble sign** on an abdominal X-ray is pathognomonic for **duodenal atresia**, characterized by two air-filled bubbles: one in the stomach and one in the proximal duodenum, separated by the pylorus. - This congenital anomaly results from a complete obstruction of the duodenum, preventing the passage of air and fluid past this point. *Duodenal stenosis* - While also an obstruction of the duodenum, **duodenal stenosis** is an incomplete obstruction, meaning some gas will pass beyond the duodenum. - This would result in gas being present in the distal bowel, which is not seen with a classic "double bubble" where the bowel distal to the duodenum is gasless. *Volvulus* - **Volvulus** involves the twisting of a loop of intestine, leading to obstruction and potentially ischemia. - While it can cause obstruction, it typically presents with a "corkscrew" appearance on an upper GI series or signs of diffuse bowel distension, not the isolated double bubble. *All of the options* - The double bubble sign is highly specific to **duodenal atresia** due to the complete obstruction it signifies. - Other conditions like duodenal stenosis and volvulus cause different radiological patterns, making this option incorrect.

Q: Which view is best for visualizing the collapse of the middle lobe of the lung?

Lateral. ***Lateral*** - A **lateral chest X-ray** is crucial for localizing abnormalities to specific lung lobes because it allows for a clear visualization of the **fissures** which define the lung lobes. - Collapse of the right middle lobe is particularly well-visualized on a lateral view as a **triangular opacity** that points towards the hilum, often obliterating the right heart border. *Anteroposterior (AP)* - While an AP or PA view can show collapse, it often appears as a **non-specific wedge or triangular opacity** and struggles with precise lobar localization due to superimposed structures. - The **heart shadow and mediastinum** can obscure parts of the middle lobe, making definitive diagnosis challenging from this view alone. *Oblique* - Oblique views are typically used for specific purposes, such as evaluating the **pleura** or **ribs**, and are not a standard view for initial assessment of lobar collapse. - They introduce **distortion and superimposition** that can make the identification and characterization of lobar collapse more difficult than a standard lateral projection. *Lordotic* - A lordotic view is primarily used to visualize the **lung apices** and to differentiate apical lesions from superimposed clavicular shadows. - It is not effective for visualizing the middle lobe, which is located more inferiorly, and would introduce significant distortion, making assessment of its collapse unreliable.

Question 1

Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Nitrous Oxide

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Propofol

Question 2

Which of the following is not classified as a cutaneous porphyria?

Accepted Answer

Sideroblastic anemia

Answer

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Answer

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

Answer

Hereditary coproporphyria

Question 3

Lines of Blaschko are related to?

Accepted Answer

Keratinocytes

Answer

Blood vessels

Answer

Nerves

Answer

Bones

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

Accepted Answer

Perforated nasal septum

Answer

Nasal polyp

Answer

Persistent sinusitis

Answer

Collapse of nasal bridge

Question 5

In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

Accepted Answer

CT angiography

Answer

D-dimer

Answer

Catheter angiography

Answer

Color Doppler

Question 6

At what point does the uterus return to being classified as a pelvic organ after pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

6 weeks

Answer

2 weeks

Answer

4 weeks

Answer

12 weeks

Question 7

Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?

Accepted Answer

Fracture shaft of humerus

Answer

Fracture supracondylar femur

Answer

Fracture supracondylar humerus

Answer

Fracture shaft of femur

Question 8

Pavlov's experiment is an example of which of the following learning theories?

Accepted Answer

Classical conditioning

Answer

Modeling

Answer

Operant conditioning

Answer

Learned helplessness

Question 9

What condition is indicated by the double bubble sign on an abdominal X-ray?

Accepted Answer

Duodenal atresia

Answer

Duodenal stenosis

Answer

Volvulus

Answer

All of the options

Question 10

Which view is best for visualizing the collapse of the middle lobe of the lung?

Accepted Answer

Lateral

Answer

Anteroposterior (AP)

Answer

Oblique

Answer

Lordotic

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry

Radiology