Obstetrics and Gynecology
7 questionsMost common site of ectopic pregnancy is -
In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?
Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?
What is the most common presenting feature of a complete mole?
What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?
Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -
A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is -
- A. Cervical
- B. Tubal (Correct Answer)
- C. Abdominal
- D. Ovarian
Explanation: ***Tubal*** - The **fallopian tubes** are the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for over **95%** of all cases. - This is because the fertilized ovum typically implants in the tube rather than reaching the uterus. *Abdominal* - **Abdominal ectopic pregnancies** are rare, occurring when the fertilized egg implants in the abdominal cavity. - They account for about **1%** of all ectopic pregnancies and often result in significant maternal complications. *Ovarian* - **Ovarian ectopic pregnancies** are very rare, occurring when the ovum is fertilized within the ovary itself. - They represent less than **1%** of all ectopic cases and can be difficult to diagnose. *Cervical* - **Cervical ectopic pregnancies** involve implantation within the cervical canal. - These are also very rare (less than **1%** of ectopic pregnancies) and are associated with a high risk of severe hemorrhage.
Question 1192: In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?
- A. Interstitial
- B. Fimbrial
- C. Isthmus (Correct Answer)
- D. Ampulla
Explanation: ***Isthmus*** - The **isthmus** is the narrowest and most muscular part of the fallopian tube. Due to its limited ability to stretch, an ectopic pregnancy here is highly prone to rupture **earlier** than in other segments (typically 6-8 weeks). - The **isthmic portion's** small lumen and thick muscular wall make rupture a rapid and common complication, often before significant fetal growth, giving it the **highest chance of rupture** when an ectopic pregnancy implants there. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately 70%) due to its wider lumen and being the usual site of fertilization. - However, rupture in the ampulla tends to occur **later** than in the isthmus (8-12 weeks) as it can accommodate the growing embryo for a longer period due to its greater distensibility. - While more ectopic pregnancies occur here in absolute numbers, each individual ampullary pregnancy has a **lower chance of rupture** compared to isthmic pregnancies. *Interstitial* - The **interstitial** (or cornual) part is the segment within the uterine wall, making it a rare site for ectopic pregnancies (2-4%). - Ruptures in the interstitial portion occur **latest** (12-16 weeks) but are often the most dangerous, leading to severe hemorrhage due to the surrounding vascularity of the uterus and proximity to uterine and ovarian arteries. *Fimbrial* - The **fimbrial** end is the portion closest to the ovary and is exceedingly rare for ectopic implantation. - Implantation near the fimbriae usually leads to an **"abdominal pregnancy"** if the embryo is extruded, or could result in early "tubal abortion" rather than a true rupture.
Question 1193: Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?
- A. Androgenic complete mole (Correct Answer)
- B. Turner's syndrome
- C. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
- D. Androgenic partial mole
Explanation: ***Androgenic complete mole*** - A **complete hydatidiform mole** is characterized by the absence of maternal genetic material and a **purely paternal genetic origin** (androgenesis). - This typically results from the **fertilization of an 'empty' egg** by either two haploid sperm or one diploid sperm. *Turner's syndrome* - This condition is a **chromosomal disorder** in females where one of the two X chromosomes is missing or incomplete (45, X0). - It is not associated with androgenesis but rather with the **absence of a functionally complete X chromosome**. *Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)* - PCOS is an **endocrine disorder** characterized by **hormonal imbalance** (high androgens), ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries. - It involves maternal and paternal genetic contributions in a normal diploid set and is not related to androgenesis. *Androgenic partial mole* - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically involves **triploidy**, where there are two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes (e.g., 69, XXX or 69, XXY). - While it involves extra paternal genetic material, it is not purely paternal in origin, as a **maternal haploid set is also present**.
Question 1194: What is the most common presenting feature of a complete mole?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Amenorrhoea
- D. Bleeding per vaginum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bleeding per vaginum (Correct)*** - **Vaginal bleeding** in the first or early second trimester is the **most common presenting symptom** of a complete hydatidiform mole, occurring in approximately 80-90% of cases - This bleeding can vary in amount and color, often described as **prune juice-like** discharge with passage of grape-like vesicles in some cases - Typically presents between **6-16 weeks of gestation** as the most frequent initial clinical sign *Vomiting (Incorrect)* - While nausea and vomiting are common in normal pregnancies, this is **not the most common presenting feature** of a complete mole - Vomiting may occur but is less specific and typically occurs after or in conjunction with vaginal bleeding - When severe, it manifests as hyperemesis gravidarum (a separate entity) *Hyperemesis gravidarum (Incorrect)* - This condition, characterized by **severe, persistent nausea and vomiting**, is more prevalent in molar pregnancies due to **excessively high hCG levels** - Occurs in approximately **25-30% of complete moles**, making it a significant but not the most common presentation - It is a **consequence** of the molar pregnancy, often presenting **after** initial bleeding, and is not the most frequent first clinical sign *Amenorrhoea (Incorrect)* - **Amenorrhoea** (absence of menstruation) is a **universal symptom** of any pregnancy, including a molar pregnancy - While it indicates conception, it does **not differentiate** a molar pregnancy from a normal pregnancy or other causes of amenorrhoea - Therefore, it is not the most specific or common **presenting feature** that would lead to diagnosis of a molar pregnancy
Question 1195: What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?
- A. Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)
- B. Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)
- C. Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)
- D. Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate)*** - **Progestin therapy** is the first-line treatment for simple endometrial hyperplasia because it counteracts the unopposed estrogen effect causing the hyperplasia. - **Progestins** lead to endometrial atrophy and shedding, helping to reverse the hyperplastic changes and prevent progression to cancer. *Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)* - **Estrogen therapy** without concomitant progestins would exacerbate endometrial hyperplasia by further stimulating endometrial growth. - This treatment is contraindicated in cases of endometrial hyperplasia unless carefully balanced with progestins. *Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)* - **Endometrial ablation** is a destructive procedure to remove the endometrial lining and is typically considered for persistent abnormal uterine bleeding, not as a primary treatment for simple hyperplasia. - It is often reserved for patients who have completed childbearing and fail medical management. *Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)* - A **total abdominal hysterectomy** is an invasive surgical procedure that is generally reserved for complex or atypical endometrial hyperplasia, or hyperplasia that is recurrent and unresponsive to medical management. - It is not the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia, especially in patients who may desire future fertility or wish to avoid major surgery.
Question 1196: Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -
- A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding (Correct Answer)
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Pain during intercourse
- D. Unusual vaginal discharge
Explanation: ***Abnormal vaginal bleeding*** - **Abnormal vaginal bleeding** is the most frequent presenting symptom of cervical cancer, often manifesting as **postcoital bleeding**, intermenstrual bleeding, or heavier, longer menstrual periods. - This symptom arises as the tumor on the cervix ulcerates and bleeds due to its friable nature and rich vascularization. *Pelvic pain* - **Pelvic pain** is typically a symptom of more **advanced cervical cancer**, indicating tumor invasion into surrounding tissues or nerves. - It is not usually an early or the most common presenting symptom, unlike abnormal bleeding. *Pain during intercourse* - **Pain during intercourse (dyspareunia)** can be a symptom of cervical cancer, particularly with larger lesions or those causing inflammation. - However, it is less common than abnormal bleeding and often occurs concurrently with or after the onset of bleeding symptoms. *Unusual vaginal discharge* - An **unusual vaginal discharge**, which may be watery, foul-smelling, or blood-tinged, can occur with cervical cancer. - While a common symptom, it is generally considered less frequent than abnormal vaginal bleeding as the primary presenting complaint.
Question 1197: A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?
- A. Stage 1C
- B. Stage 3C (Correct Answer)
- C. Stage 2C
- D. Stage 4C
Explanation: ***Stage 3C*** - **Bilateral ovarian carcinoma** with **capsule involvement**, **ascites**, and especially **paraaortic lymph node metastases** are defining features of Stage IIIC ovarian cancer. - Involvement of **retroperitoneal lymph nodes**, including paraaortic nodes, automatically upstages the disease to Stage III, irrespective of other abdominal spread. *Stage 1C* - This stage refers to ovarian cancer confined to **one or both ovaries**, with evidence of rupture, capsule involvement, or malignant cells in ascites/peritoneal washings, but **without lymph node involvement**. - The presence of **paraaortic lymphadenopathy** in this patient immediately excludes Stage 1C. *Stage 2C* - Stage 2 ovarian cancer involves one or both ovaries with **pelvic extension** beyond the ovaries, but still **without lymph node involvement**. - The patient's involvement of **paraaortic lymph nodes** goes beyond pelvic extension and therefore excludes Stage 2C. *Stage 4C* - Stage 4 ovarian carcinoma involves **distant metastasis** beyond the peritoneal cavity or distant lymph nodes (e.g., pleural effusion with positive cytology, parenchymal liver/spleen metastasis). - While paraaortic lymphadenopathy indicates advanced disease, it falls within the criteria for Stage 3 due to its location, not Stage 4.
Psychiatry
2 questionsWhich of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
- A. Starts in childhood.
- B. Behavior is maladaptive.
- C. Disorder results in personal distress.
- D. Ego dystonic symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ego dystonic symptoms*** - Personality disorders are characterized by **ego-syntonic** traits, meaning the individual perceives their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors as consistent with their self-image and acceptable. - **Ego-dystonic symptoms**, conversely, are experienced as alien, inconsistent with one's self-concept, and distressing (e.g., in OCD or major depressive disorder), which is **definitively NOT** a feature of personality disorders. - This is the key distinguishing feature: personality disorder traits are not perceived as problematic by the individual themselves (ego-syntonic), unlike neurotic disorders. *Starts in childhood.* - While personality traits and vulnerabilities may emerge in childhood, **formal diagnosis** of personality disorders is made in **late adolescence or early adulthood** (typically after age 18). - Per DSM-5 and ICD-11, the enduring pattern must be evident by early adulthood. - However, this option is less definitive as some underlying patterns do appear earlier, making "ego dystonic" the better answer. *Behavior is maladaptive.* - A **core diagnostic feature** of personality disorders is a pervasive pattern of **maladaptive behaviors** and inner experiences that deviate from cultural expectations. - These behaviors lead to distress, impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. - This IS characteristic of personality disorders. *Disorder results in personal distress.* - Despite ego-syntonic symptoms, individuals with personality disorders frequently experience **significant personal distress**, often arising from consequences of their behaviors, interpersonal conflicts, or functional impairment. - This distress IS characteristic, though it may be indirect rather than from the symptoms themselves. - This IS a feature of personality disorders.
Question 1192: Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?
- A. Sexual symptom
- B. Pain symptom
- C. GI symptom
- D. Visual symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Visual symptoms*** - **Visual symptoms** is NOT a separate diagnostic category in DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder criteria. - While visual symptoms (such as **double vision** or **blindness**) ARE part of the diagnostic criteria, they fall under the **pseudoneurological symptom** category, not as a distinct standalone category. - The DSM-IV-TR required **one pseudoneurological symptom** (which could include visual, motor, sensory symptoms, or seizures), but did not list "visual symptoms" as one of the four main symptom categories. *Sexual symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for somatization disorder explicitly included **sexual symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **one sexual symptom** was required (such as sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, irregular menses, or painful intercourse). *Pain symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **pain symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - The criteria required **four pain symptoms** occurring in at least four different sites or functions (e.g., head, abdomen, back, joints, chest). *GI symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **gastrointestinal symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **two gastrointestinal symptoms** were required (such as nausea, bloating, vomiting other than during pregnancy, or diarrhea). **Key Point:** The four DSM-IV-TR symptom categories for somatization disorder were: (1) Pain, (2) Gastrointestinal, (3) Sexual, and (4) Pseudoneurological—NOT "visual symptoms" as a separate category.
Radiology
1 questionsWhat is the standard radiation dose to point A in the cervix for brachytherapy in the treatment of cervical cancer?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: What is the standard radiation dose to point A in the cervix for brachytherapy in the treatment of cervical cancer?
- A. 8000 rad (Correct Answer)
- B. 6000 rad
- C. 10000 rad
- D. 4000 rad
Explanation: ***8000 rad*** - The standard **total cumulative radiation dose** to **Point A** in the cervix for the treatment of cervical cancer is approximately **8000 rad (80 Gy)**. - This represents the **combined dose** from external beam radiation therapy (EBRT, typically 45-50 Gy) plus intracavitary brachytherapy (typically 30-40 Gy to Point A). - Point A is a classical reference point defined as **2 cm superior to the external cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the uterine canal**, representing the location where the uterine artery crosses the ureter. - This total dose aims to provide adequate tumor control while minimizing toxicity to surrounding organs like the bladder and rectum. *6000 rad* - A total dose of **6000 rad** is insufficient for definitive local control of cervical cancer. - This dose is below the therapeutic threshold and would result in significantly higher rates of local recurrence and treatment failure. - Adequate doses are essential for curative intent in cervical cancer management. *10000 rad* - A dose of **10000 rad** to Point A would be excessively high and significantly increase the risk of severe acute and late toxicities to surrounding tissues. - Such a high dose could lead to serious complications including **rectovaginal or vesicovaginal fistulas, proctitis, cystitis, bowel strictures, and tissue necrosis**. - The therapeutic window would be exceeded, causing more harm than benefit. *4000 rad* - A dose of **4000 rad** would be substantially lower than the standard therapeutic dose for cervical cancer. - This suboptimal dose would likely result in **inadequate tumor control and increased risk of local recurrence**. - It is far below the dose required for curative treatment of cervical cancer.