Internal Medicine
1 questionsResponse to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
- A. Increase in hemoglobin
- B. Reticulocytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Restoration of enzymes
- D. Increase in iron binding capacity
Explanation: Reticulocytosis - Reticulocytosis is one of the earliest signs of a positive response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, occurring within 5-10 days. - It signifies that the bone marrow is effectively producing new red blood cells after iron supplementation. Restoration of enzymes - While iron is a crucial component of many enzymes (e.g., catalase, cytochrome oxidase), its restoration takes time and is not the primary immediate indicator of therapeutic response. - Clinical improvement and other hematological parameters precede the full restoration of enzyme function. Increase in hemoglobin - An increase in hemoglobin is a definitive sign of successful treatment, but it occurs later than reticulocytosis, typically visible after several weeks to months of therapy. - Hemoglobin levels rise as the new, iron-sufficient red blood cells fully mature and replace the older, iron-deficient ones. Increase in iron binding capacity - In iron deficiency anemia, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is typically increased due to more transferrin being available to bind iron [1]. - Successful iron therapy would lead to a decrease in TIBC as transferrin sites become saturated with iron, not an increase.
Pathology
1 questionsLinitis plastica is a type of ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: Linitis plastica is a type of ?
- A. Benign ulcer
- B. GIST
- C. Manifestation of gastric cancer (Correct Answer)
- D. Plastic-like appearance of stomach lining
Explanation: ***Diffuse carcinoma of stomach*** - Linitis plastica is a specific type of **gastric cancer** characterized by **thickening of the stomach wall**, leading to a rigid, non-distensible abdomen [1]. - It often presents with **significant weight loss** and **early satiety**, distinguishing it from other stomach conditions. *Benign ulcer* - Benign ulcers do not cause the **extensive wall thickening** or **desmoplastic response** seen in linitis plastica [1]. - They typically heal with treatment and are associated with typical ulcer symptoms, unlike the progressive nature of linitis plastica. *Plastic like lining of stomach* - While linitis plastica describes a **plastic-like appearance**, it is not classified as a mere lining change but rather a sign of underlying **malignancy** [1]. - This option misrepresents it as a benign condition rather than a serious **stomach adenocarcinoma**. *GIST* - Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) are **soft tissue tumors** of mesenchymal origin, differing fundamentally from the **invasive** characteristics of linitis plastica [2]. - GISTs typically present with **mass lesions** in the GI tract, not the diffuse rigidity seen in linitis plastica [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 779-780. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 779.
Pharmacology
8 questionsWhich of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?
Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
Which of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
Which of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
Which of the following is not a recognized use of alpha-2-agonists?
Which of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
Which urinary bladder spasmolytic has local anesthetic properties?
Which antiglaucomatous drug is known to cause spasm of accommodation?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?
- A. Nebivolol
- B. Atenolol
- C. Betaxolol
- D. Oxprenolol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Oxprenolol*** - **Oxprenolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker with **intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)**, meaning it blocks both β1 and β2 receptors and partially stimulates them. - Its non-selective action means it affects both the heart (β1) and other organs like the lungs (β2), making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Nebivolol* - **Nebivolol** is a highly cardioselective beta-blocker that primarily blocks **β1 receptors** and also has **vasodilatory properties** due to nitric oxide release. - Its high selectivity translates to fewer β2-mediated side effects, such as bronchoconstriction. *Atenolol* - **Atenolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** that predominantly blocks **β1 receptors** at therapeutic doses. - This selectivity makes it a common choice for cardiovascular conditions, reducing the risk of bronchospasm compared to non-selective agents. *Betaxolol* - **Betaxolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** primarily used for the treatment of hypertension and glaucoma. - It selectively blocks **β1 adrenergic receptors**, minimizing effects on the lungs compared to non-selective beta-blockers.
Question 112: Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
- A. Atenolol
- B. Metoprolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Esmolol
- D. Bisoprolol
Explanation: ***Metoprolol*** - **Metoprolol succinate** (extended-release formulation) is a selective **beta-1 antagonist** proven to reduce mortality and hospitalizations in **chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)**. - It works by **reducing heart rate, myocardial oxygen demand**, and preventing adverse cardiac remodeling through inhibition of chronic sympathetic activation. - Along with **bisoprolol and carvedilol**, it is one of the **three beta-blockers with proven mortality benefit** in heart failure trials. *Atenolol* - While atenolol is a selective beta-1 antagonist, it **lacks evidence for mortality benefit** in heart failure. - It has **high hydrophilicity** and renal elimination, leading to less favorable pharmacokinetics compared to metoprolol. - More commonly used for **hypertension and angina** rather than heart failure management. *Esmolol* - **Esmolol** is an ultra-short-acting selective beta-1 antagonist used for **acute control of heart rate** in perioperative and critical care settings. - Its **very short half-life (9 minutes)** makes it unsuitable for chronic management of heart failure. - Administered only **intravenously** and requires continuous infusion. *Bisoprolol* - While **bisoprolol is also approved** for heart failure and has proven mortality benefit (CIBIS-II trial), this question likely expects **metoprolol** as the answer given the historical context. - Both bisoprolol and metoprolol are acceptable answers, but **metoprolol** has been more widely studied and is more commonly cited in Indian medical exams. - Bisoprolol has **greater beta-1 selectivity** than metoprolol but similar clinical outcomes in heart failure.
Question 113: Which of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
- A. Timolol
- B. Atenolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Nadolol
- D. Propranolol
Explanation: ***Atenolol*** - **Atenolol** is a **second-generation beta blocker** characterized by its **cardioselectivity**, meaning it primarily blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart. - This selectively reduces heart rate and contractility with fewer respiratory side effects compared to non-selective agents. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker**, meaning it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. - Its non-selective action can cause significant bronchoconstriction, making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is also a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** commonly used in ophthalmic preparations for glaucoma. - It blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors and does not possess the cardioselectivity of second-generation agents. *Nadolol* - **Nadolol** is another **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** with a long duration of action due to its extensive plasma half-life. - Like other first-generation agents, it lacks cardioselectivity and blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
Question 114: Which of the following substances is not classified as a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
- A. Acrolein
- B. Phenacetin
- C. Benzidine
- D. Isopropyl alcohol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Isopropyl alcohol*** - Research does not link **isopropyl alcohol** to an increased risk of bladder cancer, making it a non-carcinogenic substance in this context. - It is commonly used as a solvent and antiseptic, but has not shown **urogenic carcinogenicity** in studies. *Phenacetin* - **Phenacetin** is an analgesic that has been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly due to its metabolite, which can be nephrotoxic. - Its use has significantly declined due to its carcinogenic effects on the urinary system. *Benzidine* - **Benzidine** is a well-known bladder carcinogen, primarily linked to the dye industry, where exposure has led to increased rates of bladder cancer [1]. - This substance has been implicated in **urothelial carcinoma** due to its mutagenic properties. *Acrolein* - **Acrolein** is a toxic compound that can cause bladder irritation and has been studied for its potential carcinogenic effects related to bladder cancer. - It is released during the combustion of materials and is known to contribute to **chemical injury** in the bladder. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 217-218.
Question 115: Which of the following is not a recognized use of alpha-2-agonists?
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Sedation
- D. Benign Hyperplasia of prostate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: Benign Hyperplasia of prostate*** - Alpha-2-agonists are **NOT** used to treat **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**; this condition is typically managed with **alpha-1-blockers** (e.g., tamsulosin, alfuzosin) or 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors. - Alpha-1-blockers relax the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow, which involves a different receptor mechanism than alpha-2-agonists. - Alpha-2-agonists would not provide therapeutic benefit for BPH. *Incorrect: Glaucoma* - Alpha-2-agonists (e.g., **brimonidine**, **apraclonidine**) **are** used to treat **glaucoma** by reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. - This action helps to **lower intraocular pressure**, a primary goal in glaucoma management. *Incorrect: Hypertension* - Central-acting alpha-2-agonists (e.g., **clonidine**, **methyldopa**) **are** used as **antihypertensive agents**. - They reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, leading to decreased heart rate, vasodilation, and consequently, **lower blood pressure**. *Incorrect: Sedation* - Alpha-2-agonists like **dexmedetomidine** and **clonidine** **are** commonly used for **sedation** in critically ill patients, especially in intensive care units. - They produce sedation, analgesia, and anxiolysis without causing significant respiratory depression, making them valuable in certain clinical settings.
Question 116: Which of the following is classified as an antispasmodic agent?
- A. Dicyclomine (Correct Answer)
- B. Physostigmine
- C. Tropicamide
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Dicyclomine*** - **Dicyclomine** is an **anticholinergic** medication that works by blocking muscarinic receptors, thereby reducing smooth muscle spasm in the gastrointestinal tract. - It is commonly used to treat symptoms of **irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)**, such as abdominal pain and cramping. *Physostigmine* - **Physostigmine** is a **cholinesterase inhibitor** that increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft. - It is used to treat **anticholinergic poisoning** by reversing the effects of anticholinergic drugs, rather than acting as an antispasmodic itself. *Tropicamide* - **Tropicamide** is an **anticholinergic** agent primarily used as a **mydriatic** (pupil dilator) and **cycloplegic** (paralyzes the ciliary muscle) for ophthalmic examinations. - Its action is localized to the eye and it does not have significant systemic antispasmodic effects. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because one of the listed medications is indeed classified as an antispasmodic agent. - When "None of the options" appears as a choice, it should only be selected if all other options are clearly incorrect.
Question 117: Which urinary bladder spasmolytic has local anesthetic properties?
- A. Tamsulosin
- B. Terazosin
- C. Oxybutynin (Correct Answer)
- D. Yohimbine
Explanation: ***Oxybutynin*** - Possesses both **anticholinergic properties** (bladder smooth muscle relaxation) and **direct local anesthetic properties**, which contribute to its spasmolytic effect on the detrusor muscle. - The **local anesthetic action** directly reduces bladder detrusor muscle contractions, explaining its efficacy in treating urge incontinence and overactive bladder. - This dual mechanism makes it unique among bladder spasmolytics. *Tamsulosin* - Is an **alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker** used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. - Does **not have local anesthetic properties** and is not a bladder detrusor spasmolytic. *Terazosin* - Also an **alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker**, similar to tamsulosin, used for BPH and hypertension. - Acts via **vascular and prostatic smooth muscle relaxation**, without local anesthetic or bladder spasmolytic effects. *Yohimbine* - Is an **alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist** known for increasing sympathetic outflow. - Does **not have bladder spasmolytic effects** or local anesthetic properties.
Question 118: Which antiglaucomatous drug is known to cause spasm of accommodation?
- A. Timolol
- B. Pilocarpine (Correct Answer)
- C. Dorzolamide
- D. Latanoprost
Explanation: ***Pilocarpine*** - **Pilocarpine** is a **direct-acting muscarinic agonist** that contracts the **ciliary muscle**. - Contraction of the ciliary muscle leads to **accommodation spasm** and a forward movement of the **iris-lens diaphragm**, which also helps to open the **trabecular meshwork**, facilitating aqueous outflow. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **beta-blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors on the ciliary epithelium. - It does not directly affect the **ciliary muscle** or cause accommodation spasm. *Dorazolamide* - **Dorzolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that reduces aqueous humor production. - Its mechanism of action does not involve the ciliary body's mechanical action and therefore does not cause **accommodation spasm**. *Latanoprost* - **Latanoprost** is a **prostaglandin analog** that increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor. - It does not directly affect the ciliary muscle's contraction or cause **accommodation spasm**.