NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -

Abnormal vaginal bleeding. ***Abnormal vaginal bleeding*** - **Abnormal vaginal bleeding** is the most frequent presenting symptom of cervical cancer, often manifesting as **postcoital bleeding**, intermenstrual bleeding, or heavier, longer menstrual periods. - This symptom arises as the tumor on the cervix ulcerates and bleeds due to its friable nature and rich vascularization. *Pelvic pain* - **Pelvic pain** is typically a symptom of more **advanced cervical cancer**, indicating tumor invasion into surrounding tissues or nerves. - It is not usually an early or the most common presenting symptom, unlike abnormal bleeding. *Pain during intercourse* - **Pain during intercourse (dyspareunia)** can be a symptom of cervical cancer, particularly with larger lesions or those causing inflammation. - However, it is less common than abnormal bleeding and often occurs concurrently with or after the onset of bleeding symptoms. *Unusual vaginal discharge* - An **unusual vaginal discharge**, which may be watery, foul-smelling, or blood-tinged, can occur with cervical cancer. - While a common symptom, it is generally considered less frequent than abnormal vaginal bleeding as the primary presenting complaint.

Q: What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?

Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate). ***Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate)*** - **Progestin therapy** is the first-line treatment for simple endometrial hyperplasia because it counteracts the unopposed estrogen effect causing the hyperplasia. - **Progestins** lead to endometrial atrophy and shedding, helping to reverse the hyperplastic changes and prevent progression to cancer. *Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)* - **Estrogen therapy** without concomitant progestins would exacerbate endometrial hyperplasia by further stimulating endometrial growth. - This treatment is contraindicated in cases of endometrial hyperplasia unless carefully balanced with progestins. *Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)* - **Endometrial ablation** is a destructive procedure to remove the endometrial lining and is typically considered for persistent abnormal uterine bleeding, not as a primary treatment for simple hyperplasia. - It is often reserved for patients who have completed childbearing and fail medical management. *Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)* - A **total abdominal hysterectomy** is an invasive surgical procedure that is generally reserved for complex or atypical endometrial hyperplasia, or hyperplasia that is recurrent and unresponsive to medical management. - It is not the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia, especially in patients who may desire future fertility or wish to avoid major surgery.

Q: What is the most common presenting feature of a complete mole?

Bleeding per vaginum. ***Bleeding per vaginum (Correct)*** - **Vaginal bleeding** in the first or early second trimester is the **most common presenting symptom** of a complete hydatidiform mole, occurring in approximately 80-90% of cases - This bleeding can vary in amount and color, often described as **prune juice-like** discharge with passage of grape-like vesicles in some cases - Typically presents between **6-16 weeks of gestation** as the most frequent initial clinical sign *Vomiting (Incorrect)* - While nausea and vomiting are common in normal pregnancies, this is **not the most common presenting feature** of a complete mole - Vomiting may occur but is less specific and typically occurs after or in conjunction with vaginal bleeding - When severe, it manifests as hyperemesis gravidarum (a separate entity) *Hyperemesis gravidarum (Incorrect)* - This condition, characterized by **severe, persistent nausea and vomiting**, is more prevalent in molar pregnancies due to **excessively high hCG levels** - Occurs in approximately **25-30% of complete moles**, making it a significant but not the most common presentation - It is a **consequence** of the molar pregnancy, often presenting **after** initial bleeding, and is not the most frequent first clinical sign *Amenorrhoea (Incorrect)* - **Amenorrhoea** (absence of menstruation) is a **universal symptom** of any pregnancy, including a molar pregnancy - While it indicates conception, it does **not differentiate** a molar pregnancy from a normal pregnancy or other causes of amenorrhoea - Therefore, it is not the most specific or common **presenting feature** that would lead to diagnosis of a molar pregnancy

Q: In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?

Isthmus. ***Isthmus*** - The **isthmus** is the narrowest and most muscular part of the fallopian tube. Due to its limited ability to stretch, an ectopic pregnancy here is highly prone to rupture **earlier** than in other segments (typically 6-8 weeks). - The **isthmic portion's** small lumen and thick muscular wall make rupture a rapid and common complication, often before significant fetal growth, giving it the **highest chance of rupture** when an ectopic pregnancy implants there. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately 70%) due to its wider lumen and being the usual site of fertilization. - However, rupture in the ampulla tends to occur **later** than in the isthmus (8-12 weeks) as it can accommodate the growing embryo for a longer period due to its greater distensibility. - While more ectopic pregnancies occur here in absolute numbers, each individual ampullary pregnancy has a **lower chance of rupture** compared to isthmic pregnancies. *Interstitial* - The **interstitial** (or cornual) part is the segment within the uterine wall, making it a rare site for ectopic pregnancies (2-4%). - Ruptures in the interstitial portion occur **latest** (12-16 weeks) but are often the most dangerous, leading to severe hemorrhage due to the surrounding vascularity of the uterus and proximity to uterine and ovarian arteries. *Fimbrial* - The **fimbrial** end is the portion closest to the ovary and is exceedingly rare for ectopic implantation. - Implantation near the fimbriae usually leads to an **"abdominal pregnancy"** if the embryo is extruded, or could result in early "tubal abortion" rather than a true rupture.

Q: Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is -

Tubal. ***Tubal*** - The **fallopian tubes** are the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for over **95%** of all cases. - This is because the fertilized ovum typically implants in the tube rather than reaching the uterus. *Abdominal* - **Abdominal ectopic pregnancies** are rare, occurring when the fertilized egg implants in the abdominal cavity. - They account for about **1%** of all ectopic pregnancies and often result in significant maternal complications. *Ovarian* - **Ovarian ectopic pregnancies** are very rare, occurring when the ovum is fertilized within the ovary itself. - They represent less than **1%** of all ectopic cases and can be difficult to diagnose. *Cervical* - **Cervical ectopic pregnancies** involve implantation within the cervical canal. - These are also very rare (less than **1%** of ectopic pregnancies) and are associated with a high risk of severe hemorrhage.

Q: What percentage of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube?

90%. ***90%*** - Approximately **90-95%** of all ectopic pregnancies occur within the fallopian tube, making it the most common site. - The **ampulla** is the most frequent tubal site, accounting for about 80% of tubal ectopics, followed by the isthmus and fimbrial end. *75%* - While a significant percentage, **75%** falls short of the actual prevalence of tubal ectopic pregnancies. - This percentage does not accurately reflect the high frequency of implantation within the fallopian tube. *80%* - **80%** is a common statistic for ectopic pregnancies occurring in the **ampulla** specifically, which is a segment of the fallopian tube. - However, the overall percentage for all fallopian tube locations is higher than 80%. *67%* - **67%** is too low and does not represent the vast majority of ectopic pregnancies that are found within the fallopian tube. - Such a low percentage would imply a higher incidence of ectopic pregnancies in other locations (e.g., ovary, cervix, abdomen), which is not the case.

Q: Which drug is commonly used in the medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

Methotrexate. ***Correct: Methotrexate*** - **Methotrexate** is a **folic acid antagonist** that inhibits DNA synthesis and cell proliferation, making it effective in terminating early ectopic pregnancies by targeting rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells. - It is typically considered for **hemodynamically stable** patients with unruptured ectopic pregnancies, a beta-hCG level below a certain threshold (e.g., <5,000 mIU/mL), and no cardiac activity in the ectopic mass. - This is the **gold standard** for medical management of ectopic pregnancy meeting specific criteria. *Incorrect: Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an **antiprogestin** primarily used for medical abortion of intrauterine pregnancies, causing detachment of the gestational sac and cervical ripening. - While it can be used in combination with misoprostol for medical abortion, it is **not the primary drug** for managing ectopic pregnancies. *Incorrect: Leuprolide* - **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** mainly used for conditions like endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and prostate cancer by suppressing ovarian or testicular hormone production. - It is **not used** in the direct medical management of ectopic pregnancy. *Incorrect: Carboprost* - **Carboprost** is a **prostaglandin F2-alpha analog** primarily used to treat **postpartum hemorrhage** by inducing strong uterine contractions. - It is **not indicated** for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy.

Q: Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?

Septate uterus. ***Septate uterus*** - A septate uterus is the most common congenital uterine anomaly, characterized by a **fibrous or muscular septum** dividing the uterine cavity. - This anomaly results from incomplete resorption of the **müllerian ducts** during development. *Bicornuate uterus* - A bicornuate uterus involves **two uterine horns** that are partially or completely separate, leading to a heart-shaped uterus. - While relatively common, it is **less prevalent** than the septate uterus. *Unicornuate uterus* - A unicornuate uterus is an anomaly where only **one side of the müllerian duct develops**, resulting in a uterus with only one horn and one fallopian tube. - This is a **rare anomaly** compared to septate and bicornuate uteri. *Arcuate uterus* - An arcuate uterus is considered a **mild variant of a normal uterus**, with a slight indentation in the fundus. - It often has **no clinical significance** and is less severe than other anomalies.

Q: What is the recommended timing for the insertion of a Copper T intrauterine device?

Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle. ***Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle*** - Inserting the **Copper T IUD** during this phase ensures the woman is not pregnant, as ovulation typically occurs later in the cycle. - The **cervix is slightly dilated** during menstruation, making insertion easier and less uncomfortable. - This is the **recommended timing** as per standard guidelines for IUD insertion. *3 days after periods are over* - While this timing might seem appropriate, it doesn't align with the optimal window for ensuring **non-pregnancy** and ease of insertion. - The **cervix may have already closed** significantly, making insertion potentially more difficult than during menstruation. *During active pelvic infection* - Insertion of an IUD during an **active pelvic infection** is **absolutely contraindicated** due to the risk of exacerbating the infection and leading to more serious complications like **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**. - The presence of infection increases the likelihood of bacteria being carried into the **uterine cavity**, potentially causing severe consequences. *Just after menstruation* - While close to the ideal window, this timing is less specific than "within 10 days" and may miss the optimal cervical conditions. - The benefits of a slightly dilated cervix during the early menstrual phase would be maximized with the more precise timing of within 10 days of cycle start.

Q: Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?

Androgenic complete mole. ***Androgenic complete mole*** - A **complete hydatidiform mole** is characterized by the absence of maternal genetic material and a **purely paternal genetic origin** (androgenesis). - This typically results from the **fertilization of an 'empty' egg** by either two haploid sperm or one diploid sperm. *Turner's syndrome* - This condition is a **chromosomal disorder** in females where one of the two X chromosomes is missing or incomplete (45, X0). - It is not associated with androgenesis but rather with the **absence of a functionally complete X chromosome**. *Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)* - PCOS is an **endocrine disorder** characterized by **hormonal imbalance** (high androgens), ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries. - It involves maternal and paternal genetic contributions in a normal diploid set and is not related to androgenesis. *Androgenic partial mole* - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically involves **triploidy**, where there are two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes (e.g., 69, XXX or 69, XXY). - While it involves extra paternal genetic material, it is not purely paternal in origin, as a **maternal haploid set is also present**.

Question 1

Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -

Accepted Answer

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

Answer

Pelvic pain

Answer

Pain during intercourse

Answer

Unusual vaginal discharge

Question 2

What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?

Accepted Answer

Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

Answer

Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)

Answer

Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)

Answer

Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)

Question 3

What is the most common presenting feature of a complete mole?

Accepted Answer

Bleeding per vaginum

Answer

Vomiting

Answer

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Answer

Amenorrhoea

Question 4

In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Interstitial

Answer

Fimbrial

Answer

Ampulla

Question 5

Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is -

Accepted Answer

Tubal

Answer

Cervical

Answer

Abdominal

Answer

Ovarian

Question 6

What percentage of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube?

Accepted Answer

90%

Answer

75%

Answer

80%

Answer

67%

Question 7

Which drug is commonly used in the medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Methotrexate

Answer

Leuprolide

Answer

Mifepristone

Answer

Carboprost

Question 8

Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?

Accepted Answer

Septate uterus

Answer

Bicornuate uterus

Answer

Unicornuate uterus

Answer

Arcuate uterus

Question 9

What is the recommended timing for the insertion of a Copper T intrauterine device?

Accepted Answer

Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle

Answer

3 days after periods are over

Answer

Just after menstruation

Answer

During active pelvic infection

Question 10

Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?

Accepted Answer

Androgenic complete mole

Answer

Turner's syndrome

Answer

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

Answer

Androgenic partial mole

NEET-PG 2013

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology