Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhich of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
- A. Miosis
- B. Conjunctival redness
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Exophthalmos (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Exophthalmos*** - A stellate ganglion block paralyses the **sympathetic nervous system** to the head and neck. - **Exophthalmos** (bulging of the eye) is a sign of sympathetic **hyperactivity**, not blockade. *Miosis* - **Miosis** (pupil constriction) is a classic sign of sympathetic blockade. - The **dilator pupillae muscle** is paralyzed, leading to unopposed parasympathetic action. *Nasal congestion* - **Nasal congestion** is a common sign due to the **vasodilation** of nasal blood vessels from sympathetic blockade. - Sympathetic nerves normally cause **vasoconstriction** in the nasal mucosa. *Conjunctival redness* - **Conjunctival redness** occurs due to **vasodilation** of conjunctival blood vessels, a direct effect of sympathetic blockade. - This is part of the **Horner's syndrome** presentation.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsFluorescein angiography is used to examine -
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Fluorescein angiography is used to examine -
- A. Ciliary vasculature
- B. Retinal vasculature (Correct Answer)
- C. Corneal vasculature
- D. Conjunctival vasculature
Explanation: ***Retinal vasculature*** - **Fluorescein angiography** involves injecting fluorescein dye into a vein and taking rapid photographs of the retina as the dye perfuses, allowing for detailed visualization of the **retinal blood vessels**. - This technique is crucial for diagnosing and monitoring conditions like **diabetic retinopathy**, **macular degeneration**, and **retinal vascular occlusions** by identifying leaks, non-perfusion areas, and abnormal vessel growth. *Ciliary vasculature* - The **ciliary body vasculature** is not directly visualized by standard fluorescein angiography as it is located anterior to the retina within the uveal tract. - While some dye may perfuse the ciliary body, the primary imaging target and diagnostic utility of fluorescein angiography are the **retinal and choroidal circulations**. *Corneal vasculature* - The normal **cornea is avascular**, meaning it does not contain blood vessels. - **Corneal neovascularization** (new vessel growth) can occur due to pathology, but fluorescein angiography is not the primary or most suitable technique for assessing corneal vessels, which are more readily visible with slit-lamp biomicroscopy. *Conjunctival vasculature* - The **conjunctiva** contains numerous small vessels, but these are superficial and can be directly observed with a slit lamp or even the naked eye. - Fluorescein angiography is an invasive procedure with a higher spatial resolution designed for deeper, more intricate vascular networks like those in the retina, making it overkill and inappropriate for routine assessment of the **conjunctival vasculature**.
Pathology
1 questionsCalcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Calcified pulmonary metastasis is seen in which carcinoma?
- A. Pancreatic carcinoma
- B. Thyroid carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Endometrial carcinoma
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Thyroid carcinoma*** - **Papillary** and **medullary thyroid carcinomas** can produce **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - In **papillary thyroid cancer**, calcification occurs due to **psammoma bodies** (concentrically laminated calcified structures). - In **medullary thyroid cancer**, calcification can occur through **dystrophic calcification** within the tumor tissue. - Other common causes of calcified lung metastases include **osteosarcoma** and **chondrosarcoma**. *Pancreatic carcinoma* - Pancreatic carcinoma rarely causes **calcified pulmonary metastases**; metastatic lesions are typically **non-calcified**. - Metastases are more commonly found in the **liver** and **peritoneum**. - Primary pancreatic tumors may show calcification, but metastases usually do not. *Endometrial carcinoma* - Endometrial carcinoma metastases to the lungs are usually **non-calcified** and appear as **soft tissue nodules**. - While it can metastasize to the lungs, **calcification** is not a typical feature of its pulmonary spread. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **thyroid carcinoma** (particularly papillary type) is a well-recognized cause of **calcified pulmonary metastases**. - Among epithelial malignancies, thyroid carcinoma is one of the classic causes of this finding.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich local anaesthetic is known to cause methemoglobinemia?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which local anaesthetic is known to cause methemoglobinemia?
- A. Procaine
- B. Prilocaine (Correct Answer)
- C. Ropivacaine
- D. Etidocaine
Explanation: ***Prilocaine*** - **Prilocaine** is metabolized into **ortho-toluidine**, which can oxidize hemoglobin to **methemoglobin**, especially at higher doses or in susceptible individuals. - **Methemoglobinemia** symptoms include **cyanosis**, **dyspnea**, and in severe cases, central nervous system depression, due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. *Procaine* - **Procaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic. It is metabolized to **para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)**, which can cause allergic reactions, but it is not associated with methemoglobinemia. - It has a relatively **short duration of action** and is less commonly used now compared to amide-type local anesthetics. *Etidocaine* - **Etidocaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic that is known for its **long duration of action** and high potency. - While it can cause systemic toxicity with high doses due to its cardiac and neurological effects, **methemoglobinemia** is not a characteristic side effect. *Ropivacaine* - **Ropivacaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic similar to bupivacaine, known for its **motor-sparing effect** and use in regional anesthesia. - It is associated with a lower risk of **cardiotoxicity** compared to bupivacaine but does not cause methemoglobinemia.
Radiology
5 questionsBarium swallow is used for -
For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation?
Which of the following conditions is the MOST COMMON cause of rib notching?
What is the most common feature of sarcoidosis on chest X-ray?
Which of the following is NOT a typical differential diagnosis for a solitary pulmonary nodule?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Barium swallow is used for -
- A. Colon
- B. Esophagus (Correct Answer)
- C. Duodenum
- D. Jejunum
Explanation: ***Esophagus*** - A **barium swallow** specifically visualizes the **esophagus**, pharynx, and sometimes the early stomach. - It's used to identify abnormalities like **dysphagia**, strictures, **achalasia**, or tumors by coating the mucosal lining. *Colon* - The colon is typically examined using a **barium enema**, where barium sulfate is administered rectally. - This procedure is effective for visualizing the large intestine for conditions like **polyps**, diverticula, or inflammatory bowel disease. *Duodenum* - While a barium swallow may transiently show the **duodenum**, its primary target is the esophagus and stomach. - More detailed imaging of the duodenum often requires an **upper GI series (UGI)**, which is a broader study of the upper digestive tract. *Jejunum* - The jejunum is part of the small intestine and is best visualized through a **small bowel follow-through (SBFT)** procedure. - This involves ingesting barium and taking serial X-rays as it progresses through the small bowel, to detect conditions like **Crohn's disease** or obstructions.
Question 1152: For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation?
- A. Ultrasound
- B. CT scan (Correct Answer)
- C. MRI
- D. Transesophageal echocardiography
Explanation: ***Correct: CT scan*** - **CT scans** are highly sensitive and specific for detecting **pericardial calcifications** due to their excellent spatial resolution and ability to measure calcium density (Hounsfield units). - They provide detailed anatomical information about the **pericardium** and can accurately map the extent, location, and thickness of calcified areas. - **CT is the gold standard** for detecting and quantifying pericardial calcification, particularly in constrictive pericarditis. *Incorrect: Ultrasound* - While ultrasound (echocardiography) can visualize the pericardium and may detect calcifications, its ability to definitively identify and characterize **calcifications** is limited compared to CT. - **Acoustic shadowing** from calcifications can obscure underlying structures, making a precise assessment challenging. - Useful for detecting pericardial effusion and thickening, but not optimal for calcification assessment. *Incorrect: MRI* - **MRI excels** in visualizing soft tissues, pericardial inflammation, and fluid collections, but it is **poor at detecting calcium**. - Calcifications typically appear as signal voids (black) on MRI, making it difficult to differentiate them from other structures, air, or motion artifacts. - MRI is valuable for assessing pericardial inflammation and constriction but not the preferred method for calcification. *Incorrect: Transesophageal echocardiography* - TEE offers high-resolution images of cardiac structures and is primarily used for assessing valve function, intracardiac masses, endocarditis, and aortic pathology. - Its utility in detecting and characterizing **pericardial calcifications** is limited compared to CT, especially for diffuse or subtle calcifications. - The pericardium is not optimally visualized with TEE compared to transthoracic echocardiography.
Question 1153: Which of the following conditions is the MOST COMMON cause of rib notching?
- A. Coarctation of aorta (Correct Answer)
- B. Atrial septal defect
- C. Chronic superior venacava obstruction
- D. Congenital interruption of aorta
Explanation: ***Coarctation of aorta*** - **Coarctation of the aorta** is the classic and **most common cause** of rib notching. - The notching is caused by the enlargement and tortuosity of the **intercostal arteries** as they provide collateral circulation to bypass the narrowed aorta. *Chronic superior venacava obstruction* - Chronic superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction may lead to the development of collateral circulation through the azygos and hemiazygos veins, but it does **not typically cause rib notching**. - Rib notching is specifically related to collateral flow bypassing an aortic obstruction, not a venous obstruction. *Atrial septal defect* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a communication between the atria that can lead to right heart volume overload and pulmonary hypertension. - While it's a congenital heart defect, an ASD does **not cause rib notching** as it does not involve an obstruction of systemic arterial flow requiring collateral circulation via the intercostal arteries. *Congenital interruption of aorta* - While **congenital interruption of the aorta** also involves an aortic obstruction, it is a **much rarer condition** than coarctation of the aorta. - Due to its rarity, it is not considered the most common cause of rib notching, even though it would theoretically lead to similar collateral vessel formation.
Question 1154: What is the most common feature of sarcoidosis on chest X-ray?
- A. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Cavitation
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Reticular opacities
Explanation: ***Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy*** - **Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy** is the hallmark radiological feature of sarcoidosis, seen in over 75% of cases. - This finding, often symmetrical, represents the accumulation of **non-caseating granulomas** in the lymph nodes. - Classic presentation in **Stage I and Stage II** sarcoidosis. *Pleural effusion* - **Pleural effusions** are uncommon in sarcoidosis, occurring in less than 5% of cases. - When present, they are usually small and unilateral, and their presence should prompt consideration of alternative diagnoses. *Cavitation* - **Cavitation** is a rare manifestation of sarcoidosis and is more characteristic of infectious processes like **tuberculosis** or certain fungal infections. - If seen, it usually suggests severe parenchymal involvement or superimposed infection. *Reticular opacities* - While **reticular opacities** (interstitial changes) can be seen in later stages of sarcoidosis, representing **pulmonary fibrosis**, they are not the *most common* initial finding. - These opacities indicate chronic disease progression (Stage III/IV) rather than the initial presentation.
Question 1155: Which of the following is NOT a typical differential diagnosis for a solitary pulmonary nodule?
- A. Tuberculoma
- B. Hamartoma
- C. Mycetoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation: ***Mycetoma*** - A mycetoma is a **fungal infection** that typically affects subcutaneous tissues, skin, and bone, forming granulomas and sinuses. It is not typically seen as a solitary pulmonary nodule. - While pulmonary fungal infections can occur, a mycetoma in the lung typically presents as a **fungus ball (aspergilloma)** within a pre-existing cavity, rather than a solitary, solid nodule. *Tuberculoma* - A tuberculoma is a **granuloma** caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which can present as a well-defined, solitary pulmonary nodule or mass on imaging. - It represents a contained form of tuberculosis and is a common differential for a solitary pulmonary nodule, especially in endemic areas. *Hamartoma* - A hamartoma is a **benign tumor-like malformation** composed of normal tissues (like cartilage, fat, and muscle) that are disorganized. - It is one of the most common benign causes of a solitary pulmonary nodule. *Bronchogenic carcinoma* - Bronchogenic carcinoma, including adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and large cell carcinoma, is the most significant concern when evaluating a solitary pulmonary nodule. - It is a primary **malignant lung tumor** and represents a crucial differential diagnosis due to its poor prognosis if not detected and treated early.
Surgery
1 questionsPulled up cecum is seen in which condition?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Pulled up cecum is seen in which condition?
- A. Cecal carcinoma
- B. Intussusception
- C. Colon carcinoma
- D. Ileocecal tuberculosis (TB) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ileocecal tuberculosis (TB)*** - **Ileocecal tuberculosis** commonly causes **fibrosis** and stricture formation in the ileocecal region, which can lead to the **retraction or pulling up of the cecum**. - This "pulled-up cecum" is a characteristic radiographic finding, often associated with a **patulous ileocecal valve** and inflammatory changes. *Cecal carcinoma* - While cecal carcinoma can cause a mass and involve the cecum, it does not typically lead to a "pulled-up" appearance. - Carcinoma usually presents as a **filling defect** or an **obstructing lesion** rather than retraction. *Intussusception* - **Intussusception** involves the telescoping of one part of the intestine into another, usually presenting as a **target sign** on imaging. - This condition does not cause a *pulled-up cecum*; instead, it involves the distal segment invaginating into the proximal segment. *Colon carcinoma* - **Colon carcinoma** can manifest as an **apple-core lesion** or an obstructing mass, but like cecal carcinoma, it generally does not cause the cecum to be pulled upwards. - The pathology is primarily one of **luminal narrowing** or mass obstruction.