NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: During abdominal surgery under local anesthesia, the patient suddenly felt pain due to

Parietal peritoneum. ***Parietal peritoneum*** - The **parietal peritoneum** is richly innervated by somatic nerves (**spinal nerves**), making it highly sensitive to pain, pressure, and temperature. - When stimulated during surgery, even under local anesthesia which might not completely block deeper somatic nerves or if the local block is inadequate, it can cause the patient to suddenly feel **sharp, localized pain**. *Liver* - The liver itself has very few pain receptors in its parenchyma; pain from the liver typically arises from stretching of its fibrous capsule (**Glisson's capsule**). - This pain is usually dull and poorly localized, not the sudden, sharp pain typically experienced during surgical manipulation. *Intestines* - The intestines are primarily innervated by the **autonomic nervous system** and are sensitive to distension and ischemia, causing visceral pain, which is typically dull, crampy, and poorly localized. - They are generally not sensitive to cutting or burning, which are common surgical manipulations. *Visceral peritoneum* - The **visceral peritoneum** covers abdominal organs and is innervated by the autonomic nervous system, similar to the organs it covers. - Like the intestines, it is sensitive to stretch and ischemia, producing diffuse, poorly localized visceral pain rather than sharp, localized pain from surgical incision or manipulation.

Q: Which of the following conditions is primarily treated with Vitamin B6?

Homocystinuria. ***Homocystinuria*** - The most common form of **homocystinuria** is caused by **cystathionine β-synthase (CBS) deficiency**, which requires **pyridoxal phosphate (Vitamin B6)** as a cofactor. - Approximately **50% of patients** with CBS deficiency are **B6-responsive**, making **high-dose Vitamin B6 (100-500 mg/day)** a **first-line primary treatment** for these cases. - This is a **clinically significant condition** that requires treatment, manifesting with features like **ectopia lentis, marfanoid habitus, intellectual disability, and thromboembolism**. - B6 supplementation enhances residual CBS enzyme activity and reduces plasma homocysteine levels. *Cystathionuria* - Caused by **cystathionine γ-lyase deficiency**, which also uses **Vitamin B6** as a cofactor. - This is generally a **benign, asymptomatic condition** that does **NOT require treatment**. - While B6 can reduce cystathionine accumulation, it is **not a primary treatment indication** because the condition is clinically insignificant. *Xanthurenic aciduria* - Caused by **kynureninase deficiency** in the **tryptophan metabolism pathway**, which requires **pyridoxal phosphate**. - This is a **rare and usually benign condition** that does not typically require treatment. - Not a primary indication for B6 therapy. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as **Homocystinuria** (CBS deficiency) is a **primary indication** for high-dose Vitamin B6 therapy in B6-responsive patients.

Q: During functional endoscopic sinus surgery the position of the patient is

Reverse Trendelenburg. ***Reverse Trendelenburg*** - This position helps to reduce **venous congestion** in the surgical field, which is crucial for maintaining clear visibility during **functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)**. - It minimizes **bleeding** by allowing gravity to drain blood away from the head and neck, improving surgical precision and safety. *Trendelenburg* - This position involves tilting the patient with the head lower than the feet, which would increase **venous pressure** in the head and neck. - Increased venous congestion would lead to significant **bleeding**, severely impairing visibility during FESS. *Lateral* - The lateral position is generally used for procedures involving the **side of the body**, such as kidney surgery or lung procedures. - It does not provide the optimal ergonomic access or venous drainage benefits required for **endoscopic sinus surgery**. *Lithotomy* - The lithotomy position is characterized by the patient lying on their back with hips and knees flexed and supported, primarily used for **pelvic or perineal procedures**. - This position is entirely inappropriate for **head and neck surgery** as it does not allow proper access to the sinus area.

Q: What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?

1500 - 2000 ml. ***1500 - 2000 ml*** - **Class III hemorrhagic shock** is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume, typically ranging from **30-40%** of total blood volume. - For an average adult, this translates to an estimated **1500-2000 ml** of blood loss, leading to marked physiological compromise. *750 - 1500 ml* - This range of blood loss corresponds to **Class II hemorrhagic shock**, where physiological changes are moderate, but compensatory mechanisms are still largely effective. - Patients in Class II shock typically present with **tachycardia** and a slight decrease in pulse pressure but generally normal blood pressure. *> 2000 ml* - A blood loss exceeding **2000 ml** (or >40% of total blood volume) is indicative of **Class IV hemorrhagic shock**, the most severe category. - This level of blood loss results in pronounced **hypotension**, severe tachycardia, and often requires immediate massive transfusion to prevent irreversible organ damage. *< 750 ml* - This range represents **Class I hemorrhagic shock**, which involves a minimal blood loss of up to 15% of total blood volume. - Patients in Class I shock typically show **minimal to no clinical signs of shock**, as compensatory mechanisms are highly effective in maintaining vital signs.

Q: Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?

Fungal infection. ***Fungal infection*** - **Fungal keratitis** produces a **non-sterile hypopyon**, meaning the hypopyon contains actual fungal elements and organisms, not just inflammatory cells alone. - This is characteristically seen with **filamentous fungi** (Aspergillus, Fusarium) and yeast (Candida), which can directly invade the anterior chamber. - The hypopyon is typically **indolent, greyish-white, and does not shift with position** unlike bacterial hypopyon, and shows poor response to antibacterial therapy. - **Fungal culture and KOH mount** are diagnostic. *Pneumococcal infection* - **Bacterial keratitis** caused by *Streptococcus pneumoniae* produces a **sterile hypopyon** consisting purely of inflammatory cells (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) without organisms in the anterior chamber. - Presents with **acute onset, severe pain, and rapid progression** with a dense stromal infiltrate. - The hypopyon is **white, mobile, and shifts with head position**. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection* - **Pseudomonas keratitis** causes an aggressive infection with a **sterile hypopyon** due to intense inflammatory response. - Characterized by **rapidly progressive stromal necrosis** with a ground-glass appearance and greenish discharge. - Often associated with **contact lens wear** and can lead to corneal perforation within 24-48 hours. *Gonococcal conjunctivitis* - **Neisseria gonorrhoeae conjunctivitis** causes severe **hyperacute purulent conjunctivitis** with copious discharge. - Typically does **not cause hypopyon** unless there is secondary corneal ulceration leading to keratitis or endophthalmitis. - Primary manifestation is conjunctival inflammation, chemosis, and lid edema.

Q: Which of the following is a major feature of Alagille syndrome?

Bile duct paucity. ***Bile duct paucity*** - **Bile duct paucity** is a hallmark histologic finding in Alagille syndrome, leading to **cholestasis** and liver disease. - This results from the reduced number of **intrahepatic bile ducts**, which are crucial for bile flow. *IHBR dilation* - **Intrahepatic biliary radical (IHBR) dilation** is characteristic of biliary obstruction, which is not the primary feature of Alagille syndrome. - Alagille syndrome is primarily a genetic condition leading to **hypoplasia or paucity** of bile ducts, not dilation. *PBC* - **Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)** is an autoimmune disease primarily affecting **small intrahepatic bile ducts**, leading to their destruction and fibrosis [1]. - It is typically seen in middle-aged women and is characterized by **antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)**, which are not features of Alagille syndrome. *PSC* - **Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by **inflammation and fibrosis** of both intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts [2]. - PSC is strongly associated with **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)** and **ANCA positivity**, which are distinct from the genetic basis and features of Alagille syndrome [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 864-865. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 865-866.

Q: What is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?

30 g/d. ***30 g/d*** - From **6 to 12 weeks** of age, infants typically experience a rapid growth phase, with an average daily weight gain of approximately **30 grams** (or about 1 ounce per day). - This rate of gain is crucial for monitoring proper nutrition and overall development during this early stage of infancy. *40 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **40 g/d** is higher than the typical average for infants between 6 and 12 weeks of age. - While individual growth rates can vary, sustained gains at this level might raise questions about overfeeding or unusually rapid growth, although it is not usually a cause for concern. *50 g/d* - A weight gain of **50 g/d** is significantly above the expected average for infants in the 6- to 12-week age range. - Such rapid weight gain, if sustained, could indicate excessive caloric intake or potentially signal underlying metabolic issues that need evaluation. *60 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **60 g/d** is an exceptionally high rate for infants between 6 and 12 weeks, far exceeding the average. - This level of growth would be a strong indicator for further investigation into feeding practices and the infant's health to rule out any potential concerns.

Q: Among the following, intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection in axilla can be done using

Isosulfan blue dye. ***Correct Option: Isosulfan blue dye*** - **Isosulfan blue dye** is a vital dye used for **intraoperative visual identification** of sentinel lymph nodes in the axilla during breast cancer surgery - The dye is injected near the tumor site and **preferentially concentrates in lymphatic channels**, allowing the surgeon to visually trace the lymphatic drainage to the **first lymph node(s)** (sentinel nodes) receiving lymph flow - The sentinel nodes appear **blue-stained** and can be identified and excised for biopsy to determine lymph node status - **Alternative methods** include radioactive tracers like **Technetium-99m** or a combination of both (dual mapping technique) *Incorrect Option: Mammography* - Mammography is an **X-ray imaging technique** used for breast cancer screening and diagnosis to detect tumors and calcifications - It is a **pre-operative diagnostic tool**, not used for intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection - Cannot visualize or track lymphatic flow during surgery *Incorrect Option: MRI* - MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) provides detailed anatomical assessment and staging of breast cancer pre-operatively - It is a **static imaging modality** that cannot be used for real-time intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection - Does not visualize lymphatic drainage or dye uptake during surgery *Incorrect Option: CT* - CT scans (Computed Tomography) provide cross-sectional images useful for assessing tumor size and metastatic spread - Not employed for **intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection** - Cannot track real-time lymphatic flow with dyes during surgery

Q: Which of the following statements is true about Marjolin's ulcer?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - Marjolin's ulcer is a **malignant transformation** that occurs in chronic wounds and scars, which tend to be **long-standing**. - It most commonly leads to the development of **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)**, and these lesions are generally **slow-growing**. *Squamous cell carcinoma develops* - This statement is true; the most common histological type of malignancy arising in a Marjolin's ulcer is **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)**. - Less frequently, **basal cell carcinoma** or other sarcomas can also arise, but **SCC** is the predominant form. - The SCC arising in Marjolin's ulcer tends to be **more aggressive** than conventional SCC, with higher rates of **local invasion** and **metastasis**. *Slow growing lesion* - This statement is true; Marjolin's ulcer lesions typically exhibit a **slow growth rate** over an extended period. - This characteristic often contributes to delayed diagnosis, as patients may initially dismiss the changes as non-malignant wound complications. - The latency period can range from **years to decades** after the initial injury. *Develops in long standing scar* - This statement is true; Marjolin's ulcer is defined by its development in areas of **chronic inflammation**, such as **burn scars**, **pressure sores**, **venous stasis ulcers**, and other non-healing wounds. - The latency period for malignant transformation in such scars can range from years to decades, indicating a **long-standing** nature. - **Burn scars** are the most common site, accounting for the majority of cases.

Q: In which of the following conditions is neurosurgery not indicated?

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI). ***Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)*** - Neurosurgery is generally **not indicated** for diffuse axonal injury because the primary damage involves widespread shearing of axons throughout the white matter, rather than a focal, surgically accessible lesion. - Management of DAI is primarily **supportive**, focusing on managing intracranial pressure and optimizing cerebral perfusion, as there is no specific surgical intervention to reverse the axonal damage. *Subdural hematoma (SDH)* - Surgical intervention, such as a **craniotomy** or **burr hole drainage**, is often indicated for acute or subacute subdural hematomas, especially when they are large, causing mass effect, or leading to neurological deterioration. - The goal of surgery is to **evacuate the blood clot** and relieve pressure on the brain. *Epidural hematoma (EDH)* - **Epidural hematomas** are typically surgical emergencies that require urgent craniotomy for evacuation of the hematoma to relieve pressure on the brain. - This is due to their rapid development and tendency to cause significant **mass effect** and brain herniation. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - Neurosurgery may be indicated for certain types of **intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)**, particularly those that are superficial, large, causing significant mass effect, or located in a surgically accessible area. - The decision for surgery often depends on the **size and location of the bleed**, the patient's neurological status, and the risk of further deterioration.

Question 1

During abdominal surgery under local anesthesia, the patient suddenly felt pain due to

Accepted Answer

Parietal peritoneum

Answer

Liver

Answer

Intestines

Answer

Visceral peritoneum

Question 2

Which of the following conditions is primarily treated with Vitamin B6?

Accepted Answer

Homocystinuria

Answer

Cystathionuria

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Xanthourenic aciduria

Question 3

During functional endoscopic sinus surgery the position of the patient is

Accepted Answer

Reverse Trendelenburg

Answer

Lateral

Answer

Lithotomy

Answer

Trendelenburg

Question 4

What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?

Accepted Answer

1500 - 2000 ml

Answer

750 - 1500 ml

Answer

> 2000 ml

Answer

< 750 ml

Question 5

Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Fungal infection

Answer

Pneumococcal infection

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

Answer

Gonococcal conjunctivitis

Question 6

Which of the following is a major feature of Alagille syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Bile duct paucity

Answer

IHBR dilation

Answer

PBC

Answer

PSC

Question 7

What is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?

Accepted Answer

30 g/d

Answer

40 g/d

Answer

50 g/d

Answer

60 g/d

Question 8

Among the following, intraoperative sentinel lymph node detection in axilla can be done using

Accepted Answer

Isosulfan blue dye

Answer

Mammography

Answer

MRI

Answer

CT

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true about Marjolin's ulcer?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma develops

Answer

Slow growing lesion

Answer

Develops in long standing scar

Question 10

In which of the following conditions is neurosurgery not indicated?

Accepted Answer

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

Answer

Subdural hematoma (SDH)

Answer

Epidural hematoma (EDH)

Answer

Intracerebral hemorrhage

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Biochemistry

ENT

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Surgery