Ophthalmology
10 questionsWhich of the following conditions is NOT diagnosed by fluorescein angiography?
During retinoscopy of a 30-year-old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely?
In specular microscopy endothelial density is measured by?
Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
Which of the following statements about the c-wave in electroretinogram (ERG) is most accurate?
Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in?
Binocular single vision is tested by?
From which surface is the Purkinje IV image formed?
Stocker's line is seen in?
Cicatrising trachoma is associated with which stage of the disease?
NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Which of the following conditions is NOT diagnosed by fluorescein angiography?
- A. Diabetes retinopathy
- B. Hypertensive retinopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Central serous retinopathy
- D. Choroidal neovascularization
Explanation: ***Hypertensive retinopathy*** - This condition is primarily diagnosed by **clinical fundoscopic examination**, not fluorescein angiography - Diagnosis is based on characteristic clinical findings: **arteriovenous nicking, copper/silver wire arterioles, cotton-wool spots, flame-shaped hemorrhages, and papilledema** in severe cases - **Fluorescein angiography** is rarely needed and only used in research settings or to assess severe complications; it is **not a standard diagnostic tool** for hypertensive retinopathy *Diabetic retinopathy* - **Fluorescein angiography** is extensively used for diagnosing and staging diabetic retinopathy - It helps identify **microaneurysms, capillary non-perfusion areas, macular edema, and neovascularization** - Essential for detecting **proliferative diabetic retinopathy** and planning laser photocoagulation *Central serous retinopathy* - **Fluorescein angiography** shows characteristic **"smokestack" or "inkblot" pattern** of leakage at the RPE level - Demonstrates one or more **leakage points** with progressive pooling of dye in the subretinal space - While **OCT** is now preferred for initial diagnosis, FA remains valuable for identifying leakage sites and guiding treatment *Choroidal neovascularization* - **Fluorescein angiography** is the gold standard for diagnosing **choroidal neovascularization (CNV)** - Shows **early hyperfluorescence with progressive leakage** from abnormal vessels - Critical for determining the **type (classic vs occult), location, and extent** of CNV for treatment planning
Question 1022: During retinoscopy of a 30-year-old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely?
- A. Homatropine 2% drop
- B. Cyclopentolate 1% drop (Correct Answer)
- C. Atropine 1% ointment
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Cyclopentolate 1% drop*** - When cycloplegia is required for retinoscopy, **cyclopentolate 1%** is the preferred agent in adults due to its **rapid onset** (30-60 minutes) and **intermediate duration** (6-24 hours). - It provides adequate **cycloplegia** (paralysis of accommodation) to reveal the full refractive error without the prolonged effects of atropine. - **Clinical note:** In routine practice, most adults aged 30 years undergo retinoscopy **without cycloplegia** as accommodation is usually not a significant factor. Cycloplegia in adults is reserved for specific indications like suspected latent hyperopia, accommodative spasm, or unreliable subjective refraction. *Homatropine 2% drop* - Homatropine has a **slower onset** (1 hour) and **longer duration** (1-3 days) compared to cyclopentolate, making it less practical for routine diagnostic use. - It is typically used for therapeutic purposes such as in **anterior uveitis** to provide cycloplegia and mydriasis. *Atropine 1% ointment* - Atropine is the **strongest** and **longest-acting** cycloplegic with effects lasting **7-14 days**, which is excessively long for diagnostic retinoscopy. - It is primarily used in **young children** (especially under 5 years) for accurate refraction and in therapeutic settings for **cycloplegic refraction in amblyopia** treatment. *None of the options* - While it's true that **routine retinoscopy in a healthy 30-year-old adult** typically does NOT require cycloplegia, this question asks which cycloplegic would be used **when indicated**. - Among the available cycloplegic options, **cyclopentolate** remains the appropriate choice for adults when cycloplegia is deemed necessary.
Question 1023: In specular microscopy endothelial density is measured by?
- A. None of the options
- B. Optical doubling
- C. Fixed frame analysis (Correct Answer)
- D. Optical focusing
Explanation: ***Fixed frame analysis*** - This is the **standard method** used in specular microscopy to measure corneal endothelial cell density. - It involves analyzing a specific, fixed area of the **endothelial mosaic** and counting the number of cells within that defined frame. - The cell count from this fixed area is then **extrapolated** to calculate the overall endothelial cell density (cells/mm²). - This technique provides **quantitative assessment** of endothelial health, which is crucial for evaluating corneal function and pre-operative assessment for intraocular surgeries. *Optical doubling* - This is not a standard method for measuring endothelial density in specular microscopy. - Optical doubling relates to **refractive phenomena** or optical measurement techniques used in other contexts, not for endothelial cell counting. *Optical focusing* - While **essential for image acquisition**, optical focusing is merely a preliminary step to obtain a clear, sharp image of the endothelium. - It does not measure or count cells; it only ensures proper visualization before analysis. - The actual measurement requires subsequent **cell counting methods** like fixed frame analysis. *None of the options* - Incorrect because **fixed frame analysis** is indeed the recognized and widely used method for measuring endothelial density in specular microscopy.
Question 1024: Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
- A. Loss of central vision
- B. Visual field constriction
- C. Tubular vision
- D. Loss of peripheral vision (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loss of peripheral vision*** - Retinitis pigmentosa is a group of genetic disorders that cause **progressive degeneration of photoreceptor cells**, primarily rods, which are concentrated in the periphery of the retina. - This degeneration leads to a gradual **loss of peripheral vision**, often beginning with **night blindness** and progressing to tunnel vision. *Loss of central vision* - Loss of central vision is characteristic of conditions affecting the **macula**, such as **age-related macular degeneration** or certain forms of **macular dystrophy**. - While later stages of retinitis pigmentosa can affect central vision, the initial and primary characteristic is loss of peripheral vision. *Tubular vision* - **Tubular vision** is an advanced stage of peripheral vision loss, where the visual field shrinks to a narrow central area, resembling looking through a tube. - While it can be a consequence of retinitis pigmentosa, it is a description of the **extent of visual field constriction** rather than the primary characteristic of the disease itself. *Visual field constriction* - **Visual field constriction** is a general term for any reduction in the extent of the visual field. - While retinitis pigmentosa certainly causes visual field constriction, the term "loss of peripheral vision" is more specific to the initial and dominant pattern of vision loss in this condition.
Question 1025: Which of the following statements about the c-wave in electroretinogram (ERG) is most accurate?
- A. The 'c' wave is a slow positive wave. (Correct Answer)
- B. The 'c' wave is a negative wave.
- C. The 'b' wave arises primarily from photoreceptors.
- D. The 'a' wave is a positive wave.
Explanation: ***The 'c' wave is a slow positive wave.*** - The **c-wave** in an ERG is generated by the **retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)** and is characterized by its **slow, positive deflection**. - It reflects the **hyperpolarization** of the RPE cells in response to light stimulation. *The 'c' wave is a negative wave.* - This statement is incorrect because the **c-wave** is consistently observed as a **positive deflection** in the ERG tracing. - A negative wave like the **a-wave** is generated by photoreceptor hyperpolarization, which is a different component. *The 'b' wave arises primarily from photoreceptors.* - The **b-wave** primarily arises from the **Müller cells** and **bipolar cells**, not directly from photoreceptors. - Photoreceptor activity is primarily reflected in the **a-wave**. *The 'a' wave is a positive wave.* - The **a-wave** is a **negative deflection** in the ERG, representing the **hyperpolarization of photoreceptors** in response to light. - It is the earliest component of the ERG waveform.
Question 1026: Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in?
- A. Optic nerve lesion (Correct Answer)
- B. Pituitary adenoma
- C. Posterior cerebral artery infarct
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Optic nerve lesion*** - An **arcuate field defect** is a specific pattern of visual field loss that follows the course of nerve fibers in the retina and is characteristic of **optic nerve damage**, similar to what is seen in glaucoma. - This type of defect is due to damage to the **bundle of retinal nerve fibers** that arch above or below the macula, often causing a scotoma (blind spot) that respects the horizontal meridian. - Common causes include **anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION)**, **optic neuritis**, and other optic nerve pathologies that affect the nerve fiber layer. *Pituitary adenoma* - A pituitary adenoma typically causes a **bitemporal hemianopsia** due to compression of the optic chiasm. - This visual field defect involves the lateral halves of both visual fields, which is different from an arcuate defect. *Posterior cerebral artery infarct* - An infarct in the posterior cerebral artery typically leads to a **homonymous hemianopsia** (loss of half of the visual field on the same side in both eyes) or a quadrantanopsia. - This type of defect results from damage to the **visual cortex** or optic radiations, not the optic nerve itself in a glaucoma-like pattern. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **optic nerve lesion** is a valid and correct answer. - Optic nerve pathologies are well-established causes of arcuate field defects similar to those seen in glaucoma.
Question 1027: Binocular single vision is tested by?
- A. Amsler grid
- B. Cardboard test
- C. Synoptophore (Correct Answer)
- D. Maddox rod
Explanation: ***Synoptophore*** - The **synoptophore** is an ophthalmic instrument used to diagnose and treat various binocular vision anomalies, including **strabismus** and suppression. - It allows for the precise measurement and assessment of the eyes' ability to **fuse images** from both eyes into a single perception, which is the essence of **binocular single vision**. *Amsler grid* - The **Amsler grid** is primarily used to detect central visual field defects, such as those caused by **macular degeneration** or other retinal pathologies. - It does not directly assess the brain's ability to fuse images from both eyes into a single vision. *Cardboard test* - The "cardboard test" is not a standard ophthalmic test for binocular single vision. - It may refer to various informal or rudimentary tests, but it lacks the precision and standardization required for accurate assessment of binocular functions. *Maddox rod* - The **Maddox rod** is used to detect and measure **heterophoria** (latent strabismus) or **heterotropia** (manifest strabismus). - It dissociates the images seen by each eye, preventing fusion and revealing the deviation of the eyes, rather than directly testing the ability to achieve binocular single vision.
Question 1028: From which surface is the Purkinje IV image formed?
- A. Anterior surface of cornea
- B. Posterior surface of lens (Correct Answer)
- C. Posterior surface of cornea
- D. Anterior surface of lens
Explanation: ***Posterior surface of lens*** - The **Purkinje IV image** is formed by reflection from the **posterior surface of the lens**, which is the most curved surface in the eye. - Due to the higher curvature and refractive index difference, this surface acts as a concave mirror, producing an **inverted, virtual image**. *Anterior surface of cornea* - The **Purkinje I image** is formed from the **anterior surface of the cornea**, which is the primary reflective surface of the eye. - This image is **bright, erect, and virtual**, serving as a basic reference for eye position. *Posterior surface of cornea* - The **Purkinje II image** originates from the **posterior surface of the cornea**, a much less curved and reflective surface than the anterior. - This image is typically **fainter** and less frequently used in clinical assessments due to its reduced visibility. *Anterior surface of lens* - The **Purkinje III image** is generated by reflection from the **anterior surface of the lens**. - This image is **inverted and virtual**, and its movement relative to Purkinje I can indicate lens accommodation changes.
Question 1029: Stocker's line is seen in?
- A. Pterygium (Correct Answer)
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Posterior scleritis
- D. Diabetic retinopathy
Explanation: **Pterygium** - **Stocker's line** is a **ferrous deposit** that appears as a brown or yellow line at the leading edge of a **pterygium**. - Its presence signifies the progressive nature of the pterygium, indicating ongoing iron deposition due to chronic epithelial degeneration and remodeling. *Glaucoma* - Glaucoma is characterized by **optic nerve damage** and **visual field loss**, usually associated with elevated intraocular pressure. - It does not involve the formation of Stocker's line, which is a corneal or conjunctival finding. *Posterior scleritis* - Posterior scleritis is an **inflammation of the sclera** behind the equator of the globe, often presenting with pain, vision loss, or choroidal folds. - It does not involve the characteristic Stocker's line, which is specific to pterygium. *Diabetic retinopathy* - Diabetic retinopathy involves **microvascular damage** to the retina, leading to vision loss, and is characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and neovascularization. - It is a retinal disease and does not present with Stocker's line.
Question 1030: Cicatrising trachoma is associated with which stage of the disease?
- A. Stage-1
- B. Stage-2
- C. Stage-3 (Correct Answer)
- D. Stage-4
Explanation: ***Stage-3*** - **Cicatrising trachoma** corresponds to Stage 3 of the WHO classification for trachoma, characterized by scarring of the conjunctiva. - This stage is marked by the presence of **conjunctival scarring (TS)**, which can lead to further complications. *Stage-1* - Stage 1 is characterized by **trachomatous inflammation, follicular (TF)**, indicating active infection with follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva. - It represents the initial, active inflammatory phase and does not involve scarring. *Stage-2* - Stage 2 is characterized by **trachomatous inflammation, intense (TI)**, where there is pronounced inflammation that obscures blood vessels. - While intense inflammation is present, significant scarring has not yet developed at this stage, differentiating it from cicatrising trachoma. *Stage-4* - Stage 4 is characterized by **trachomatous trichiasis (TT)**, where the eyelashes turn inward and rub against the cornea. - This stage is a direct complication of the scarring from Stage 3, leading to corneal damage, rather than the cicatrising stage itself.