Garden spade deformity is seen in ?
Pilon fracture is
Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?
What is a Hangman's fracture?
Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?
Saturday night palsy is which type of nerve injury?
Which of the following movements is typically restricted in Perthes disease?
Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
What is the purpose of the Insall-Salvati index?
Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Garden spade deformity is seen in ?
- A. Smith's fracture (Correct Answer)
- B. Colle’s fracture
- C. Bennett’s fracture
- D. Barton’s fracture
Explanation: ***Smith's fracture*** - This fracture involves **volar displacement** of the distal radial fragment, causing the characteristic **garden spade deformity** or **reverse Colles' fracture**. - It typically results from a fall onto a **flexed wrist** or a direct blow to the back of the wrist. *Colle’s fracture* - This fracture is characterized by **dorsal displacement** of the distal radial fragment, leading to a **dinner fork deformity**. - It usually occurs from a fall onto an **extended wrist**. *Bennett’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the base of the **first metacarpal bone**, involving the carpometacarpal joint. - It is often caused by axial loading on a partially flexed thumb. *Barton’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the distal radius involving either the **dorsal or volar rim**. - It is essentially a **shear fracture** with associated carpal displacement.
Question 12: Pilon fracture is
- A. Bimalleolar fracture
- B. Trimalleolar fracture
- C. Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture (Correct Answer)
- D. Proximal tibia fracture
Explanation: ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture*** - A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**. - These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage. *Bimalleolar fracture* - A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula). - While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture. *Trimalleolar fracture* - A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia). - Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia. *Proximal tibia fracture* - This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint. - It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.
Question 13: Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?
- A. Pagets disease
- B. Leukemia
- C. TB
- D. Klippel-Feil syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Klippel-Feil syndrome*** - **Block vertebrae** are a characteristic radiographic finding in **Klippel-Feil syndrome**, resulting from the congenital fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae. - This fusion leads to a **short neck**, **low hairline**, and **restricted neck motion**. *Pagets disease* - **Paget's disease** is a chronic condition of abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and weakened bones. - While it can cause vertebral body changes, **block vertebrae** resulting from congenital fusion are not a typical feature. *Leukemia* - **Leukemia** involves uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal white blood cells, which can infiltrate bone marrow and cause lytic or blastic lesions in bones. - It does not cause **block vertebrae**, which are a developmental anomaly. *TB* - **Tuberculosis (TB) of the spine (Pott's disease)** is an infectious condition causing vertebral destruction, collapse, and kyphosis. - While TB can lead to vertebral collapse and eventual fusion during healing, the primary pathology is destructive and not the congenital fusion seen as **block vertebrae**.
Question 14: What is a Hangman's fracture?
- A. Fracture dislocation of C2 (Correct Answer)
- B. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint
- C. Fracture of odontoid
- D. Subluxation of C5 over C6
Explanation: ***Fracture dislocation of C2*** - A Hangman's fracture classically refers to a **bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis of the axis (C2)**, often with an associated anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. - This injury is typically caused by **hyperextension-distraction forces**, such as those experienced in judicial hangings or motor vehicle accidents. *Subluxation of C5 over C6* - While cervical subluxations are serious, a **C5-C6 subluxation** does not specifically describe a Hangman's fracture. - This type of injury involves different vertebral levels and typically results from different mechanisms. *Fracture dislocation of ankle joint* - This option refers to an injury in the **lower limb**, completely unrelated to the cervical spine. - A Hangman's fracture is a specific type of **cervical vertebral fracture**. *Fracture of odontoid* - A fracture of the odontoid process involves the **dens (odontoid process)** of C2. - This is a distinct type of C2 fracture from a Hangman's fracture, which involves the **pars interarticularis**.
Question 15: Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?
- A. Trauma
- B. Osteoporosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Ankylosing spondylitis
- D. Rickets
Explanation: ***Osteoporosis*** - **Osteoporosis** leads to vertebral compression fractures, particularly in the thoracic spine, which causes a gradual collapse of the vertebral bodies and an increase in the kyphotic curve. - This condition is very common, especially in **postmenopausal women** and the elderly, making it the most frequent cause of kyphotic deformity. *Trauma* - While significant **spinal trauma** can lead to kyphotic deformities, it is generally less common than the gradual kyphosis resulting from osteoporosis. - Traumatic kyphosis usually results from severe injuries leading to **vertebral body collapse** or neurological deficits. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** can cause severe kyphosis, often referred to as a "bamboo spine," due to chronic inflammation and fusion of the vertebrae. - However, it is a less prevalent condition compared to **osteoporosis-related kyphosis**. *Rickets* - **Rickets**, a childhood bone disorder caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, can lead to bone deformities including kyphosis due to softened bones. - While a cause in children, its prevalence is lower than osteoporosis globally as a cause of kyphosis and it primarily affects a different age group.
Question 16: Saturday night palsy is which type of nerve injury?
- A. Neuropraxia (Correct Answer)
- B. Axonotemesis
- C. Complete section
- D. Neurotmesis
Explanation: ***Neuropraxia*** - This is the mildest form of nerve injury, involving a **temporary conduction block** without axonal disruption, often due to **compression** or mild stretching. - **Saturday night palsy**, caused by prolonged compression of the radial nerve, is a classic example, characterized by rapid and complete recovery, typically within days to weeks. *Axonotemesis* - This involves **axon damage** and Wallerian degeneration distal to the injury, but the **endoneurium and connective tissue sheaths remain intact**. - Recovery is slower and often incomplete, as it requires axonal regeneration through the preserved connective tissue tubes, taking months. *Neurotmesis* - This is the most severe type of nerve injury, involving **complete transection of the nerve fiber**, including the axon, myelin, and all connective tissue sheaths. - Recovery is often poor and requires surgical intervention to attempt re-approximation of the nerve ends. *Complete section* - This term is largely synonymous with **neurotmesis**, indicating a full anatomical disruption of the nerve. - It involves the severance of all nerve components, leading to complete loss of function distal to the injury and the poorest prognosis for spontaneous recovery.
Question 17: Which of the following movements is typically restricted in Perthes disease?
- A. Abduction & internal rotation (Correct Answer)
- B. Abduction & external rotation
- C. Adduction & internal rotation
- D. Adduction & external rotation
Explanation: ***Abduction & internal rotation*** - **Perthes disease** affects the femoral head, leading to pain and stiffness that most commonly restricts **abduction** and **internal rotation** of the hip. - This restriction is an early and consistent clinical finding, often accompanied by a ** Trendelenburg gait** due to gluteal muscle weakness or pain avoidance. *Abduction & external rotation* - While abduction can be restricted, a primary restriction in **external rotation** is less typical in early Perthes disease. - Reduced external rotation is more characteristic of conditions like **slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)**, especially in older children. *Adduction & internal rotation* - **Adduction** is generally preserved or even increased in Perthes disease as the hip seeks a position of comfort due to pain, making it an unlikely primary restriction. - While internal rotation is restricted, the combination with adduction restriction is not the classical presentation. *Adduction & external rotation* - Neither **adduction** nor **external rotation** are typically the primary hip movements restricted in Perthes disease. - Restriction in adduction is rare, and external rotation is often compensatory or less affected than internal rotation.
Question 18: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
- A. Ligamenta flava
- B. Supraspinal ligament
- C. Post. longitudinal ligament (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior longitudinal ligament
Explanation: ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.
Question 19: What is the purpose of the Insall-Salvati index?
- A. To measure ankle dorsiflexion range
- B. To assess patellar height and tendon length ratio (Correct Answer)
- C. To evaluate elbow joint stability
- D. To assess wrist bone alignment
Explanation: ***To assess patellar height and tendon length ratio*** - The **Insall-Salvati index** is a radiographic measurement used to determine **patellar height** by comparing the length of the patellar tendon to the greatest diagonal length of the patella. - It helps in diagnosing conditions like **patella alta** (high-riding patella) or **patella baja** (low-riding patella), which can contribute to knee pain and instability. *To evaluate elbow joint stability* - **Elbow joint stability** is typically assessed through clinical examination for ligamentous integrity (e.g., UCL, RCL) and sometimes dynamic imaging, not by the Insall-Salvati index. - The Insall-Salvati index is specific to the **knee joint** and **patellar position**. *To measure ankle dorsiflexion range* - **Ankle dorsiflexion range** is measured clinically using a goniometer or in 3D motion analysis, not with the Insall-Salvati index. - This index is a specialized measurement for the **patellofemoral joint**. *To assess wrist bone alignment* - **Wrist bone alignment** is evaluated using various radiographic measurements such as the scaphoid-lunate angle or carpal height ratio. - The Insall-Salvati index has no application in the assessment of the **wrist**.
Question 20: Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?
- A. Kyphosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Spondylolisthesis
- C. Scoliosis
- D. Spinal stenosis
Explanation: **Kyphosis** * **Halopelvic traction** is a technique specifically designed to apply sustained corrective forces to the spine, making it particularly effective in treating severe **kyphosis**, especially in young patients prior to surgical correction. * It aids in gradually stretching soft tissues and straightening the spinal curvature over time, often used in cases of congenital or severe developmental kyphosis. *Scoliosis* * While traction can be used in some spinal deformities, **scoliosis** (lateral curvature) is more commonly treated with **bracing** or **surgical fusion**, as halopelvic traction is less effective in correcting the rotational component. * Correction of scoliotic curves typically involves forces applied in multiple planes, which halopelvic traction is not ideally suited for. *Spondylolisthesis* * **Spondylolisthesis** involves the **slippage of one vertebra over another**, which is primarily managed through **stabilization** to prevent further slippage. * Halopelvic traction is not indicated as it could potentially exacerbate instability in the presence of vertebral slippage. *Spinal stenosis* * **Spinal stenosis** refers to the **narrowing of the spinal canal**, which compresses nerves and is usually treated with **decompressive surgery** or **conservative management** for pain relief. * Traction methods are generally not used for spinal stenosis as they do not address the underlying anatomical narrowing and may worsen symptoms.