Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
In inflammatory myopathy, which group of muscles is not affected
Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?
A 68-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The symptoms completely resolve within 30 minutes with no residual neurological deficits. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
Pea soup diarrhea is seen in -
Which of the following is not a treatment option for hypercalcemia?
Which of the following is commonly seen in Polycythemia Vera?
What is the primary cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
- A. Ascites
- B. Normal BP (Correct Answer)
- C. Generalized edema
- D. Dry mucous membrane
Explanation: ***Normal BP*** - In SIADH, patients are typically **euvolemic** due to the primary issue being water retention rather than salt retention or frank dehydration [2]. - While hyponatremia occurs, the body's compensatory mechanisms usually prevent significant changes in blood pressure, maintaining it within the **normal range**. *Generalized edema* - Generalized edema is uncommon in SIADH because the excessive water retention is initially within the **intravascular compartment**, and the body attempts to excrete the additional volume of water [1]. - Although the patient is effectively retaining water, the osmolality is low, leading to fluid shifts rather than overt edema unless severe, protracted fluid overload occurs. *Ascites* - **Ascites**, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, is not a characteristic feature of SIADH [2]. - Ascites is more commonly associated with conditions like **liver cirrhosis**, heart failure, or malignancy. *Dry mucous membrane* - **Dry mucous membranes** are a sign of dehydration and fluid volume deficit. - In contrast, SIADH involves **fluid overload** (though euvolemic), making dry mucous membranes an unlikely finding [2].
Question 72: Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
- A. Pernicious anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Intestinal lymphatic ectasia
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Explanation: a and b - Megaloblastic anemia is commonly associated with **vitamin B12** [1] and **folate deficiencies** [2], which can occur due to various causes. - Conditions leading to malabsorption (such as those related to the gastrointestinal tract) contribute significantly to megaloblastic anemia [1, 2]. *ileal resection* - Ileal resection can indeed lead to **malabsorption** of vitamin B12 [1], particularly if the distal ileum is removed. - However, it is important to note that megaloblastic anemia specifically reflects a broader range of potential deficiencies, thus it is not an exclusive answer. *Crohn's disease* - Crohn's disease can cause **malabsorption** and result in vitamin B12 deficiency but is not a direct cause of megaloblastic anemia on its own. - The anemia may occur due to complications like **ileo-pouch anastomosis** rather than the disease itself. *Intestinal lymphatic ectasia* - This condition leads to **protein-losing enteropathy**, potentially causing deficiencies but not specifically leading to megaloblastic anemia. - The anemia associated with this condition is typically due to **hypoalbuminemia** and not a result of any vitamin deficiency directly.
Question 73: In inflammatory myopathy, which group of muscles is not affected
- A. Facial
- B. Proximal muscles of limb
- C. Ocular (Correct Answer)
- D. Distal muscles of limb
Explanation: ***Ocular*** - The **extraocular muscles** responsible for eye movement are generally spared in typical inflammatory myopathies, distinguishing them from other neuromuscular disorders. - Inflammatory myopathies primarily affect **skeletal muscles**, but **ocular muscles** have unique immunological and physiological properties that often protect them. *Facial* - While less commonly affected early in the disease, some inflammatory myopathies, particularly **dermatomyositis**, can eventually involve **facial muscles**, leading to weakness. - Involvement of **facial muscles** can manifest as difficulty with smiling, whistling, or closing the eyelids. *Proximal muscles of limb* - Inflammatory myopathies characteristically cause **proximal muscle weakness**, affecting muscles of the **shoulders, hips, and thighs** [1]. - This weakness often presents as difficulty climbing stairs, getting up from a chair, or lifting objects overhead [1]. *Distal muscles of limb* - While less common than proximal involvement, **distal muscle weakness** (affecting hands and feet) can occur in some subsets of inflammatory myopathies, such as **inclusion body myositis**. - This can lead to difficulties with fine motor tasks or foot drop.
Question 74: Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)
- B. Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)
- C. Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels) (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)
Explanation: ***Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels)*** - **Hypocalcemia** in tumor lysis syndrome results from the precipitation of calcium with excessive phosphate released from lysed tumor cells. - The elevated phosphate levels bind to calcium, forming **calcium phosphate crystals** that can deposit in tissues, further lowering serum calcium. *Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)* - Tumor lysis syndrome typically leads to **metabolic acidosis**, not alkalosis, due to the release of acidic intracellular metabolites like uric acid and phosphate. - The accumulation of these acidic compounds overwhelms the body's buffering systems, decreasing blood pH. *Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by **hyperkalemia**, an increase in blood potassium, as potassium is a major intracellular cation released during cell lysis. - The rapid breakdown of numerous tumor cells dumps vast amounts of intracellular potassium into the bloodstream. *Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome causes **hyperphosphatemia**, an elevation in blood phosphate levels, because phosphate is abundantly present within tumor cells and is released upon their destruction. - This excessive release of intracellular phosphate is a hallmark biochemical feature of the syndrome.
Question 75: In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?
- A. Nephritic syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Cirrhosis
- C. Protein losing enteropathy
- D. Multiple myeloma
Explanation: ***Nephritic syndrome*** - In nephritic syndrome, the **glomerular filtration is often preserved**, allowing for the maintenance of A:G ratio despite the presence of hematuria and proteinuria [1]. - The condition typically leads to a **moderate degree of proteinuria**, retaining a relatively normal serum albumin level [1]. *Multiple myeloma* - In multiple myeloma, there is often a **high level of paraproteins** leading to a significant drop in albumin, affecting the A:G ratio. - Patients frequently exhibit **renal impairment**, resulting in a disrupted A:G ratio due to increased urinary protein loss. *Protein losing enteropathy* - This condition causes **loss of proteins** like albumin through the gastrointestinal tract, leading to **hypoalbuminemia** and altered A:G ratio. - It is characterized by **diarrhea** and fluid accumulation, further impacting the protein status in circulation. *Cirrhosis* - Cirrhosis leads to **decreased albumin synthesis**, resulting in a low serum albumin and an altered A:G ratio. - The condition is associated with **portal hypertension** and ascites, complicating the biochemical status.
Question 76: A 68-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The symptoms completely resolve within 30 minutes with no residual neurological deficits. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
- A. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) (Correct Answer)
- B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- D. Ischemic stroke
Explanation: ***Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)*** - A TIA is characterized by **transient neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia**, without acute infarction [1]. - The key diagnostic feature here is the **complete resolution of symptoms within a short period** (30 minutes) with no residual deficits, fitting the definition of TIA [1]. *Subarachnoid hemorrhage* - This typically presents with a **sudden, severe headache** (often described as "thunderclap"), stiff neck, and altered mental status. - While it can cause sudden neurological deficits, these symptoms usually **do not resolve completely within minutes**, and often lead to persistent deficits or life-threatening complications. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - An intracerebral hemorrhage involves **bleeding directly into the brain tissue**, leading to sudden onset of neurological deficits that **progress over time** [2]. - The symptoms are generally **severe and persistent**, and would not resolve completely within 30 minutes. *Ischemic stroke* - An ischemic stroke is caused by a **blockage of blood flow to the brain**, resulting in brain tissue damage (infarction) and persistent neurological deficits [2]. - While initial symptoms can be similar to a TIA [3], an ischemic stroke by definition involves **permanent damage and lasting deficits**, unlike what is described in the patient's presentation.
Question 77: Pea soup diarrhea is seen in -
- A. Cholera
- B. Typhoid (Correct Answer)
- C. Yersinosis
- D. Hepatitis
Explanation: ***Typhoid*** - **Pea soup diarrhea** is a classic symptom of **typhoid fever**, caused by *Salmonella Typhi* [1]. - This characteristic stool is a greenish-yellow watery diarrhea due to inflammation and ulceration of the Peyer's patches in the small intestine [1]. *Cholera* - Characterized by **rice-water stools**, which are profuse, watery, and often contain flecks of mucus, resembling water in which rice has been rinsed [2]. - This type of diarrhea is due to the potent **cholera toxin** causing massive fluid and electrolyte secretion [2]. *Yersinosis* - Causes diarrhea that can range from watery to bloody, often associated with severe **abdominal pain** mimicking appendicitis. - While it can cause enterocolitis, the stool consistency is not typically described as "pea soup" like in typhoid. *Hepatitis* - Hepatitis primarily affects the **liver** and typically does **not cause diarrhea** as a prominent symptom. - Common symptoms include jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools due to impaired bilirubin metabolism.
Question 78: Which of the following is not a treatment option for hypercalcemia?
- A. Strontium (Correct Answer)
- B. Bisphosphonates
- C. Steroids
- D. Phosphate
Explanation: ***Strontium*** - **Strontium ranelate** is primarily used in the treatment of **osteoporosis** to promote bone formation and inhibit bone resorption. - It does not have a recognized role in the acute or long-term management of **hypercalcemia** and could potentially worsen it due to its bone-targeting effects if not carefully managed. *Steroids* - **Glucocorticoids** are effective in treating hypercalcemia associated with **granulomatous diseases** (e.g., sarcoidosis) and certain malignancies (e.g., multiple myeloma) by reducing calcitriol production or tumor burden. - They decrease intestinal calcium absorption and increase renal calcium excretion in conditions where 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is elevated. *Bisphosphonates* - **Bisphosphonates** (e.g., zoledronic acid, pamidronate) are potent inhibitors of **osteoclast-mediated bone resorption** and are a cornerstone in the treatment of moderate to severe hypercalcemia, especially due to malignancy. [1] - They are administered intravenously and act by inducing osteoclast apoptosis, thereby reducing the release of calcium from bone. [1] *Phosphate* - **Intravenous phosphate** can be used in severe, resistant hypercalcemia, as it promotes calcium deposition into bone and soft tissues, and forms insoluble calcium-phosphate complexes, thus lowering serum calcium. - Its use is limited due to risks of **ectopic calcification**, renal failure, and hypotension, and it is usually reserved for life-threatening situations where other treatments have failed.
Question 79: Which of the following is commonly seen in Polycythemia Vera?
- A. Hyperuricemia
- B. Prone for acute leukemia
- C. Spontaneous severe infection
- D. Thrombosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Spontaneous severe infection*** - In Polycythemia Vera, there is usually an **increased red blood cell mass** leading to complications like thrombosis, rather than a predisposition to severe infections. - Severe infections are not a typical feature, as the condition usually maintains **functional immunity** despite hyperviscosity. *Thrombosis* - Individuals with Polycythemia Vera have increased blood viscosity that results in a higher risk of **thrombosis**, which is a common complication [1]. - Events like **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** or **cerebral venous sinus thrombosis** are often observed due to altered hemodynamics. *Hyperuricemia* - Hyperuricemia occurs due to increased cell turnover and breakdown of red cells in Polycythemia Vera, leading to elevated **uric acid levels** [1]. - Patients may experience **gout attacks** as a consequence of this elevated uric acid [1]. *Prone for acute leukemia* - While there is an increased risk of transformation to myeloid neoplasms, the risk for **acute leukemia** is not directly attributed to Polycythemia Vera in most cases. - It is more related to myelofibrosis or secondary conditions developing over time rather than a direct association.
Question 80: What is the primary cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
- A. Adrenal hemorrhage post malignancy
- B. Adrenal hemorrhage after meningococcal infection (Correct Answer)
- C. Adrenal hemorrhage after corticosteroid withdrawal
- D. Congenital adrenal deficiency
Explanation: ***Adrenal hemorrhage after meningococcal infection*** - **Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome** is characterized by **massive, bilateral adrenal hemorrhage**, leading to acute adrenal insufficiency [1]. - It is most commonly associated with overwhelming **meningococcal sepsis**, particularly due to *Neisseria meningitidis* [1]. *Adrenal hemorrhage post malignancy* - While malignancies can cause adrenal hemorrhage, it is not the primary cause of **Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome**. - This syndrome is specifically linked to severe **bacterial sepsis**, not typically cancer-related adrenal bleeding [1]. *Congenital adrenal deficiency* - **Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)** involves genetic defects affecting cortisol synthesis, leading to chronic adrenal insufficiency. - It does not involve acute **adrenal hemorrhage** as seen in Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. *Adrenal hemorrhage after corticosteroid withdrawal* - Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroids can precipitate an **adrenal crisis** due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis [2]. - However, it does not typically cause the characteristic **massive adrenal hemorrhage** seen in Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome [2].