Which of the following statements about polio is false?
Most common site for hydatid cyst
Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-
Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?
What is the recommended rate of correction for sodium deficit in patients with chronic hyponatremia?
Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?
Which of the following conditions is associated with male pseudohermaphroditism?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?
Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which of the following statements about polio is false?
- A. 99% non paralytic
- B. Aseptic meningitis
- C. Flaccid paralysis
- D. Increased tendon reflexes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased tendon reflexes*** - Polio causes **lower motor neuron damage**, specifically to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage leads to **flaccid paralysis** and **decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes**, not increased reflexes [3]. *99% non paralytic* - The vast majority of poliovirus infections (approximately 95-99%) are **asymptomatic** or cause only mild, non-specific symptoms. - Only a small percentage of infected individuals develop the more severe paralytic form of the disease. *Flaccid paralysis* - Poliovirus directly attacks and destroys **motor neurons** in the anterior horn of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage results in **muscle weakness** and loss of muscle tone, leading to **flaccid paralysis** [3]. *Aseptic meningitis* - About 1-5% of poliovirus infections can manifest as **aseptic meningitis**, characterized by symptoms like fever, headache, neck stiffness, and vomiting without bacterial infection [2]. - This form of meningitis is typically **self-limiting** and does not lead to paralysis [2].
Question 52: Most common site for hydatid cyst
- A. Lung
- B. Liver (Correct Answer)
- C. Brain
- D. Kidney
Explanation: ***Liver*** - The **liver** is the most common site for hydatid cysts, accounting for approximately **60-70%** of cases [1]. - It often leads to **biliary obstruction** and liver dysfunction, highlighting its impact on the organ. *Kidney* - Hydatid cysts in the **kidney** are rare and account for a small percentage of cases (around **2-5%**). - Symptoms are often nonspecific, including **flank pain** or hematuria, which are not primary concerns. *Brain* - While the **brain** can be affected, it is not a common site; CNS involvement occurs in only **1-2%** of hydatid disease cases. - Symptoms are related to increased intracranial pressure or focal neurological deficits, not typical for hydatid cysts. *Lung* - The **lung** is another site for hydatid cysts but accounts for about **10-20%** of cases. - Presentation may include **cough** and chest pain, making it less common compared to liver involvement.
Question 53: Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-
- A. Gluteus
- B. Subcutaneous
- C. Deltoid (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior abdominal wall
Explanation: Deltoid - The **deltoid muscle** is the recommended site for intramuscular injection of cell culture rabies vaccine due to its size and accessibility [1]. - Intramuscular administration in this area ensures optimal vaccine absorption and immunogenicity [1]. Gluteus - The **gluteus muscle** is not the preferred site for rabies vaccine due to the risk of injecting into fat, which can lead to reduced immune response [1]. - Additionally, there is a higher risk of **sciatic nerve injury** with gluteal injections. Subcutaneous - **Subcutaneous administration** is not the standard route for cell culture rabies vaccines as it can lead to slower absorption and potentially a less robust immune response. - This route is typically reserved for specific vaccine types or in situations where intramuscular injection is contraindicated. Anterior abdominal wall - The **anterior abdominal wall** is an unsuitable site for intramuscular injection of rabies vaccine. - This area is primarily used for **subcutaneous injections** (e.g., insulin) and lacks sufficient muscle mass for effective intramuscular vaccine delivery.
Question 54: Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?
- A. Steatorrhea and flatulence (Correct Answer)
- B. All of the options
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Abdominal pain
Explanation: ***Steatorrhea and flatulence*** - **Giardiasis** is an intestinal infection caused by the parasite *Giardia lamblia*, leading to malabsorption and characteristic symptoms [1]. - The parasite attaches to the intestinal lining, interfering with fat absorption, which results in **steatorrhea** (fatty, foul-smelling stools) and increased gas production causing **flatulence** [1]. *Nausea and vomiting* - While **nausea** can occur in giardiasis, **vomiting** is less common as a primary or dominant symptom. - These symptoms are more characteristic of other gastrointestinal infections like **viral gastroenteritis**. *Abdominal pain* - **Abdominal pain** is a general symptom that can occur with many gastrointestinal issues, including giardiasis [1]. - However, it's not as specific or as clinically defining for giardiasis as **steatorrhea** and **flatulence**, which are direct consequences of the parasite's impact on fat absorption. *All of the options* - Although some patients with giardiasis may experience nausea and abdominal pain, **steatorrhea** and **flatulence** are the most direct and specific indicators of the malabsorption caused by *Giardia lamblia* [1]. - Choosing "all of the above" would imply that all listed symptoms are equally common and specific, which is not the case for giardiasis.
Question 55: What is the recommended rate of correction for sodium deficit in patients with chronic hyponatremia?
- A. 0.5 mmol/hour (Correct Answer)
- B. 1 mmol/hour
- C. 1.5 mmol/hour
- D. 2.0 mmol/hour
Explanation: ***0.5 mmol/hour*** [1] - This rate of correction is recommended to avoid **osmotic demyelination syndrome (ODS)**, also known as central pontine myelinolysis [1]. - The aim is to correct the sodium deficit gradually, with a maximum increase not exceeding **8-10 mmol/L in any 24-hour period** [1]. *1 mmol/hour* - This rate is generally considered too rapid for chronic hyponatremia and increases the risk of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - While acceptable in some acute severe cases, it is typically avoided in chronic settings where the brain has adapted to lower osmolality. *1.5 mmol/hour* - This rate would lead to an even faster correction of sodium, significantly elevating the risk of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - It would result in a correction of 36 mmol/L over 24 hours, far exceeding the recommended daily limit of 8-10 mmol/L. *2.0 mmol/hour* - Such a rapid correction rate is highly dangerous and almost guarantees the development of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - This aggressive correction would lead to severe brain injury due to rapid osmotic shifts.
Question 56: Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?
- A. Cherry like skin
- B. Flaky paint like skin (Correct Answer)
- C. Glossitis
- D. Nail change
Explanation: ***Flaky paint like skin*** - This dermatological manifestation, known as **"flaky paint" dermatosis** or **crazy pavement dermatosis**, is a classic sign of **severe protein-energy malnutrition** (PEM), particularly **kwashiorkor**. - It results from **altered skin keratinization** and **desquamation** due to inadequate protein synthesis, leading to patches of hyperpigmentation and peeling skin that resemble peeling paint. *Glossitis* - **Glossitis**, or inflammation of the tongue, is primarily associated with deficiencies of **B vitamins** (especially B12, folate, niacin, and riboflavin) and **iron deficiency**. - While protein deficiency can broadly affect cell turnover, glossitis is not a primary or specific symptom directly attributable to it. *Nail change* - Various **nail changes** can indicate nutritional deficiencies, but they are more commonly linked to deficiencies in **iron** (e.g., koilonychia or "spoon nails"), **zinc** (e.g., Beau's lines, white spots), or certain **vitamins**. - While chronic malnutrition can impact nail health, there isn't a specific, characteristic nail change solely indicative of protein deficiency. *Cherry like skin* - "Cherry-like skin" is not a recognized dermatological symptom associated with any specific nutritional deficiency in medical literature. - Skin manifestations like **cherry angiomas** are benign vascular proliferations and are generally not linked to nutritional status.
Question 57: Which of the following conditions is associated with male pseudohermaphroditism?
- A. 21-hydroxylase deficiency
- B. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
- C. 17-hydroxylase deficiency
- D. 5-alpha reductase deficiency (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5-alpha reductase deficiency*** - This deficiency prevents the conversion of **testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT)**, which is essential for external male genitalia development. - Individuals with XY chromosomes are born with **ambiguous genitalia** that may appear female-like, leading to male pseudohermaphroditism. *21-hydroxylase deficiency* - This is the most common cause of **congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)**, leading to overproduction of androgens. [1] - In XX individuals, it causes **virilization**, resulting in female pseudohermaphroditism, not male. [1] *17-hydroxylase deficiency* - This leads to impaired synthesis of **cortisol and sex steroids**, thus affecting adrenal and gonadal functions. [1] - XY individuals with this deficiency typically present with **female external genitalia** due to a lack of androgens, but it's a different mechanism than 5-alpha reductase deficiency. [1] *Androgen insensitivity syndrome* - In this condition, individuals with XY chromosomes have **non-functional androgen receptors**, making their bodies unable to respond to testosterone. [1] - They develop **female external genitalia** despite having testes and usually present as phenotypic females. [1]
Question 58: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?
- A. Retinitis pigmentosa
- B. Ataxia
- C. CCF (Correct Answer)
- D. Ichthyosis
Explanation: ***CCF*** - **Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)** is generally **not a primary feature** or common complication of Refsum disease. While some cardiac abnormalities can occur, severe CCF is rare. - Refsum disease is characterized by the accumulation of **phytanic acid**, which primarily affects the nervous system, skin, and eyes. *Ataxia* - **Cerebellar ataxia** is a very common and prominent neurological symptom in Refsum disease, due to damage to the cerebellum. - Patients often present with **unsteady gait and poor coordination**. *Ichthyosis* - **Ichthyosis** (dry, scaly skin) is a characteristic dermatological manifestation of Refsum disease, occurring in nearly all patients. - It is caused by the disruption of **lipid metabolism** in the skin due to phytanic acid accumulation. *Retinitis pigmentosa* - **Retinitis pigmentosa** is one of the classic ocular features of Refsum disease, leading to **night blindness** and progressive **visual field loss**. - It involves the degeneration of photoreceptor cells in the retina.
Question 59: Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?
- A. GI bleeding (Correct Answer)
- B. Convulsions
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L
Explanation: ***GI bleeding*** - While patients on dialysis may experience gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not a direct indication for initiating or continuing **hemodialysis**. - **GI bleeding** in end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients can be due to various causes and requires specific management of the bleeding itself, not necessarily an alteration in dialysis prescription. *Convulsions* - **Convulsions** in patients with renal failure, especially due to uremia, are a severe manifestation of **uremic encephalopathy**. - This is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** as it rapidly removes uremic toxins causing central nervous system dysfunction. *Pericarditis* - **Uremic pericarditis**, characterized by inflammation of the pericardium due to accumulation of uremic toxins, is a serious complication of renal failure. - It is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** to prevent further cardiac complications like cardiac tamponade. *Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L* - Severe **hyperkalemia** (typically > 6.0-6.5 mEq/L) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that can cause cardiac arrhythmias. - **Hemodialysis** is highly effective in rapidly removing potassium from the body and is an absolute indication, especially if unresponsive to other medical therapies.
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?
- A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- B. Halitosis
- C. Syndactyly (Correct Answer)
- D. Decrease in tone of LES
Explanation: ***Syndactyly*** - **Syndactyly** (fusion of digits) is a congenital anomaly and is **not** a typical feature of scleroderma. - Scleroderma primarily involves **fibrosis** and vascular changes, leading to skin thickening, not digit fusion [1]. *Decrease in tone of LES* - A **decrease in tone of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** is a common gastrointestinal manifestation of scleroderma. - This leads to **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** and related symptoms due to smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis. *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - **Restrictive cardiomyopathy** can occur in scleroderma due to **myocardial fibrosis**, leading to impaired diastolic filling. - This is a serious cardiac complication that can cause **heart failure**. *Halitosis* - **Halitosis** (bad breath) can be an indirect manifestation of scleroderma, often associated with severe **GERD**. - Impaired esophageal motility and reflux are common in scleroderma and can contribute to dental problems and **oral dysbiosis**, which can cause halitosis.