If a claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, what is the classification of the deformity?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?
What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?
Which of the following characteristics can be used to differentiate the rash of chickenpox from the rash of smallpox?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
Subclavian steal syndrome is
What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cushing's triad?
A 25 year old female presents with generalized restriction of eye movement in all direction, intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and fatigability.Which is the MOST useful test in making the diagnosis?
Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: If a claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, what is the classification of the deformity?
- A. Grade 0
- B. Grade I
- C. Grade II (Correct Answer)
- D. Grade III
Explanation: A **claw hand** deformity, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints, indicates a significant and **visible disability** but the affected part is still functional to a limited degree. In the context of leprosy, this observable and permanent deformity falls under **Grade II** on the WHO disability grading scale, signifying a clear and established disability. This grade indicates **no disability** or deformity related to leprosy. A patient with a claw hand has an obvious physical deformity and functional impairment, thus not fitting this classification. This grade refers to a **detectable impairment** but **no visible deformity**. A claw hand is a clearly visible deformity, making Grade I an inappropriate classification. While Grades are typically 0, I, and II in the WHO disability grading for leprosy, some classifications might refer to severe, non-functional deformities as higher grades. However, Grade II adequately captures **visible and significant deformities** like a claw hand, and a Grade III is not a standard or commonly used classification for a claw hand in leprosy in the WHO system.
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?
- A. Thirst
- B. Restlessness
- C. Dry tongue
- D. Normal BP (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Normal BP*** - In **mild dehydration**, the body's compensatory mechanisms, such as increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, typically manage to maintain a **normal blood pressure**. [1] - A significant drop in **blood pressure** (hypotension) is usually indicative of **moderate to severe dehydration**, where these compensatory mechanisms begin to fail. [2] *Thirst* - **Thirst** is one of the **earliest and most reliable** indicators of dehydration, as the body signals a need for fluid intake. [3] - It arises in response to increased plasma osmolality and decreased blood volume, both occurring even in **mild dehydration**. [3] *Restlessness* - **Restlessness** can be an early sign of discomfort and altered mental status associated with **mild dehydration**, particularly in infants and young children. - As the body struggles to maintain fluid balance, individuals may experience irritability and general unease. *Dry tongue* - A **dry tongue** and **dry sticky mucous membranes** are common signs of mild to moderate dehydration. - This symptom results from reduced salivary production due to decreased fluid volume in the body.
Question 53: What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?
- A. 18.5-24.9
- B. 30-34.9
- C. 35-39.9
- D. 25-29.9 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***25-29.9*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** between 25 and 29.9 kg/m² is classified as **overweight** [1] or **preobesity**. - This range indicates an increased risk of developing various health problems associated with higher body weight [1]. *18.5-24.9* - This BMI range is considered **normal weight**, which is generally ideal for health [1]. - Individuals within this range typically have the lowest risk of weight-related health complications [1]. *30-34.9* - A BMI in this range is classified as **obesity class I** [1]. - This category indicates a significantly increased risk of developing co-morbidities such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease [1]. *35-39.9* - This BMI range represents **obesity class II** (severe obesity) [1]. - Individuals in this category face a high risk of serious health issues and often require more aggressive intervention strategies [1].
Question 54: Which of the following characteristics can be used to differentiate the rash of chickenpox from the rash of smallpox?
- A. Deep-seated
- B. Pleomorphic (Correct Answer)
- C. Centrifugal
- D. Multilocular
Explanation: ***Pleomorphic*** - The rash of **chickenpox** is **pleomorphic**, meaning lesions at various stages of development (macules, papules, vesicles, scabs) are present simultaneously in the same body area. - In contrast, a **smallpox** rash is **monomorphic**, with all lesions in a given area appearing at the same stage of development. *Centrifugal* - A **centrifugal distribution** (lesions more concentrated on the face and extremities) is characteristic of **smallpox**. - **Chickenpox** typically has a **centripetal distribution**, with lesions more concentrated on the trunk. *Deep-seated* - **Smallpox** lesions are described as **deep-seated** and feel like "shot under the skin," often associated with significant scarring. - **Chickenpox** lesions are superficial and less likely to cause scarring unless secondarily infected. *Multilocular* - **Smallpox** vesicles and pustules are typically **multilocular**, meaning they have internal septations and do not collapse when punctured. - **Chickenpox** vesicles are unilocular, appearing as a single compartment, and collapse when punctured.
Question 55: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
- A. Calcinosis cutis
- B. Digital ulcers
- C. Acroosteolysis
- D. Gottron's papules (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gottron's papules*** - **Gottron's papules** are pathognomonic for **dermatomyositis**, not systemic sclerosis. They are red, scaling papules found over the extensor surfaces of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints. - While both systemic sclerosis and dermatomyositis are connective tissue diseases, their distinct cutaneous manifestations aid in differentiation. *Acroosteolysis* - **Acroosteolysis** refers to the resorption of the distal phalanges, a common feature in systemic sclerosis, particularly in severe cases. - This symptom contributes to the characteristic digital abnormalities seen in the disease. *Calcinosis cutis* - **Calcinosis cutis** is the deposition of calcium in the skin and subcutaneous tissues, often seen in subsets of systemic sclerosis, especially the CREST syndrome. - It can manifest as firm, white-yellow nodules or plaques and contribute to skin breakdown. *Digital ulcers* - **Digital ulcers** are a frequent and debilitating complication of systemic sclerosis, resulting from severe **vasculopathy** [1] and **ischemia** [1]. - They are often painful and can lead to significant tissue loss and infection.
Question 56: Subclavian steal syndrome is
- A. Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery
- C. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
- D. B/L reversal of blood flow in vertebral arteries
Explanation: ***Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery*** - Subclavian steal syndrome occurs due to a **proximal stenosis** or **occlusion of the subclavian artery**. - This causes blood to be "stolen" from the **ipsilateral vertebral artery**, flowing retrograde to supply the arm and thereby reducing blood flow to the brainstem. *Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery* - The carotid arteries supply blood to the brain directly and are typically not directly involved in thesteal phenomenon in this specific syndrome. - Reversal of flow in the carotid artery would indicate a much more severe and different pathology, not characteristic of subclavian steal. *Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery* - The steal phenomenon specifically involves the vertebral artery on the **same side (ipsilateral)** as the subclavian artery obstruction. - The contralateral vertebral artery would typically continue to supply blood to the brain without a reversed flow in this syndrome. *B/L reversal of blood flow in vertebral arteries* - Subclavian steal syndrome is generally a **unilateral phenomenon**, affecting the vertebral artery ipsilateral to the subclavian artery stenosis. - Bilateral reversal would imply bilateral subclavian artery obstruction or other severe cerebrovascular disease, which is not the definition of subclavian steal syndrome itself.
Question 57: What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
- A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts
- C. High platelet and lymphocyte counts
- D. A reduction in all blood cell types
Explanation: ***Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia*** - **Evans syndrome** is defined by the simultaneous or sequential occurrence of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** and **immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)** [1], [2]. - Both conditions involve the immune system mistakenly attacking and destroying **red blood cells** and **platelets**, respectively [1], [2]. *Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts* - While **red blood cell counts** are low in Evans syndrome due to AIHA, **lymphocyte counts** are not a defining characteristic; they can vary. - This option does not fully capture the dual autoimmune destruction of red blood cells and platelets specific to Evans syndrome. *High platelet and lymphocyte counts* - **Platelet counts** are **low** in Evans syndrome due to ITP, not high. - **Lymphocyte counts** are not characteristically high; a high count might suggest other conditions like leukemias or lymphomas. *A reduction in all blood cell types* - A reduction in all (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) is known as **pancytopenia**, which is not the defining feature of Evans syndrome. - Evans syndrome specifically involves the destruction of **red blood cells** and **platelets**, but not necessarily all white blood cell types.
Question 58: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cushing's triad?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Irregular breathing
- D. Hypotension (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypotension*** - Cushing's triad is an indicator of **increased intracranial pressure (ICP)** and classically presents with **hypertension**, not hypotension. - Hypotension would suggest a different problem, such as **spinal shock** or **hypovolemia**, which are not directly associated with Cushing's triad. *Bradycardia* - **Bradycardia** is a key component of Cushing's triad, resulting from vagal stimulation due to increased intracranial pressure. - This reflex reduces heart rate in an attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension**, specifically a widened pulse pressure, is a cardinal feature of Cushing's triad, caused by systemic vasoconstriction to overcome increased ICP and maintain **cerebral perfusion pressure**. - It is a compensatory mechanism to push blood into the brain. *Irregular breathing* - **Irregular breathing patterns**, such as Cheyne-Stokes respiration or ataxic breathing, are characteristic of Cushing's triad, indicating brainstem compression [1]. - This irregular respiratory effort is due to direct pressure on the **respiratory centers** in the medulla [1].
Question 59: A 25 year old female presents with generalized restriction of eye movement in all direction, intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and fatigability.Which is the MOST useful test in making the diagnosis?
- A. CPK
- B. Edrophonium test (Correct Answer)
- C. EMG
- D. Muscle biopsy
Explanation: ***Edrophonium test*** - The **Edrophonium test** (Tensilon test) is highly useful for diagnosing **myasthenia gravis** due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. - In a patient with suspected myasthenia gravis, such as this one presenting with **generalized restriction of eye movement**, **intermittent ptosis**, and **fatigable proximal muscle weakness**, the administration of edrophonium will lead to a temporary but significant improvement in muscle strength. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby increasing its availability at the neuromuscular junction [1]. *CPK* - **Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)** levels are typically normal in myasthenia gravis, as it is a disorder of the **neuromuscular junction**, not a primary muscle disease. - Elevated CPK levels usually indicate muscle damage, seen in conditions like **myositis** or **muscular dystrophies**, which are not suggested by the patient's symptoms. *EMG* - **Electromyography (EMG)**, specifically **repetitive nerve stimulation (RNS)** or **single-fiber EMG (SFEMG)**, can show characteristic decremental responses or increased jitter/blocking in myasthenia gravis [2], but it is less direct and often more invasive than the Edrophonium test for initial diagnostic confirmation. - While supportive, it is generally considered a secondary diagnostic tool after a strong clinical suspicion and is not the *most useful* initial test compared to the rapid symptomatic improvement seen with edrophonium. *Muscle biopsy* - A **muscle biopsy** is generally not useful in diagnosing myasthenia gravis as the muscle tissue itself is structurally normal. - This diagnostic tool is reserved for primary **muscle disorders** like muscular dystrophies or inflammatory myopathies, which would show characteristic histological changes.
Question 60: Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)
- B. Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)
- C. Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels) (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)
Explanation: ***Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels)*** - **Hypocalcemia** in tumor lysis syndrome results from the precipitation of calcium with excessive phosphate released from lysed tumor cells. - The elevated phosphate levels bind to calcium, forming **calcium phosphate crystals** that can deposit in tissues, further lowering serum calcium. *Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)* - Tumor lysis syndrome typically leads to **metabolic acidosis**, not alkalosis, due to the release of acidic intracellular metabolites like uric acid and phosphate. - The accumulation of these acidic compounds overwhelms the body's buffering systems, decreasing blood pH. *Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by **hyperkalemia**, an increase in blood potassium, as potassium is a major intracellular cation released during cell lysis. - The rapid breakdown of numerous tumor cells dumps vast amounts of intracellular potassium into the bloodstream. *Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome causes **hyperphosphatemia**, an elevation in blood phosphate levels, because phosphate is abundantly present within tumor cells and is released upon their destruction. - This excessive release of intracellular phosphate is a hallmark biochemical feature of the syndrome.