Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?
Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
Which HLA antigen is associated with thromboangitis obliterans?
Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
Which of the following glands is NOT typically involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type II A (MEN II A)?
What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?
Which of the following statements about polio is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
- A. Hemolysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- D. Aplastic anemia
Explanation: ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
- A. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
- B. Autosomal recessive inheritance (Correct Answer)
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. Hamartomatous polyp
Explanation: ***High risk of malignancy*** - Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is primarily associated with **benign hamartomatous polyps**, not a **high risk of malignancy**, which distinguishes it from other syndromes. - Although patients may develop cancers [1], the syndrome itself does not inherently denote a high malignancy risk like other syndromes such as familial adenomatous polyposis. *Autosomal dominant* - This syndrome is indeed **autosomal dominant**, caused by mutations in the STK11 gene. - Families with this condition typically show **vertical transmission**, characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance. *Hamartomatous polyp* - Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop **hamartomatous polyps**, which are a hallmark feature of the condition [1]. - These polyps can occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are benign lesions rather than adenomatous type seen in other syndromes [1]. *Mucocutaneous pigmentation* - Mucocutaneous pigmentation, such as **freckling around the lips and buccal mucosa**, is a key clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. - This pigmentation usually appears in childhood and is often a distinguishing sign of the syndrome.
Question 33: What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?
- A. Supportive care, including respiratory support (Correct Answer)
- B. Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms
- C. Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase
- D. No specific antidote
Explanation: **Supportive care, including respiratory support** * **Paralysis** in organophosphorus poisoning (OPP) is often due to **nicotinic effects** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to respiratory muscle weakness and failure [2]. * **Respiratory support** through mechanical ventilation is crucial to maintain oxygenation and prevent complications while awaiting the effects of antidotal therapy [1], [2]. * *Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms* * **Atropine** primarily blocks **muscarinic receptors**, effectively treating symptoms like bradycardia, bronchorrhea, and miosis [2]. * It does **not reverse the nicotinic effects** responsible for muscle paralysis and respiratory failure. * *Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase* * **Oximes (e.g., pralidoxime)** reactivate **acetylcholinesterase**, thereby addressing the underlying cause of acetylcholine accumulation [2]. * They are most effective if given **early** before irreversible aging of the enzyme occurs, but their effect on established paralysis can be limited without concurrent respiratory support [2]. * *No specific antidote* * This statement is incorrect; **atropine** and **oximes** are specific antidotes for organophosphorus poisoning [2]. * While these antidotes are vital, initial management prioritizing **airway and breathing support** is paramount due to the life-threatening respiratory paralysis [1].
Question 34: Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
- A. Increase in hemoglobin
- B. Reticulocytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Restoration of enzymes
- D. Increase in iron binding capacity
Explanation: Reticulocytosis - Reticulocytosis is one of the earliest signs of a positive response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, occurring within 5-10 days. - It signifies that the bone marrow is effectively producing new red blood cells after iron supplementation. Restoration of enzymes - While iron is a crucial component of many enzymes (e.g., catalase, cytochrome oxidase), its restoration takes time and is not the primary immediate indicator of therapeutic response. - Clinical improvement and other hematological parameters precede the full restoration of enzyme function. Increase in hemoglobin - An increase in hemoglobin is a definitive sign of successful treatment, but it occurs later than reticulocytosis, typically visible after several weeks to months of therapy. - Hemoglobin levels rise as the new, iron-sufficient red blood cells fully mature and replace the older, iron-deficient ones. Increase in iron binding capacity - In iron deficiency anemia, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is typically increased due to more transferrin being available to bind iron [1]. - Successful iron therapy would lead to a decrease in TIBC as transferrin sites become saturated with iron, not an increase.
Question 35: What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
- A. Pancreas
- B. Duodenum (Correct Answer)
- C. Jejunum
- D. Gall bladder
Explanation: ***Duodenum*** - The **duodenum** is the most common site for gastrinomas, accounting for over **half of all cases**, particularly in sporadic gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - These tumors are often **small** and **multiple** in the duodenum, making them challenging to locate. *Pancreas* - Pancreatic gastrinomas are also common, representing approximately **25-40% of cases**, but are less frequent than duodenal gastrinomas. - Pancreatic gastrinomas tend to be **larger** and more amenable to surgical resection when compared to duodenal gastrinomas. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas found in the jejunum are **rare**, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. - The small intestine distal to the duodenum is an **uncommon site** for primary gastrinoma formation. *Gall bladder* - The **gallbladder** is not a typical location for gastrinoma development. - Gastrinomas are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from **gastrin-producing cells**, which are not found in the gallbladder.
Question 36: Which HLA antigen is associated with thromboangitis obliterans?
- A. HLA-B27
- B. HLA-DR4
- C. HLA-B5 (Correct Answer)
- D. HLA-DR2
Explanation: HLA-B5 - **HLA-B5** (specifically **HLA-B51**) has been associated with an increased risk of **thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease)** in some populations. - This association suggests a potential genetic predisposition, although the disease's primary risk factor remains **smoking**. *HLA-B27* - **HLA-B27** is strongly associated with **spondyloarthropathies**, such as **ankylosing spondylitis** and **reactive arthritis**, not thromboangiitis obliterans [1]. - Its presence indicates a genetic susceptibility to inflammatory arthritic conditions primarily affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints [1]. *HLA-DR4* - **HLA-DR4** is a well-known genetic marker associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**, particularly severe forms. - It is also linked to other autoimmune diseases like **Type 1 Diabetes**, but not thromboangiitis obliterans. *HLA-DR2* - **HLA-DR2** is associated with an increased risk of several autoimmune diseases, most notably **multiple sclerosis** and **narcolepsy**. - While it plays a role in immune regulation, it is not specifically linked to thromboangiitis obliterans.
Question 37: Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
- A. Optic nerve glioma (Correct Answer)
- B. Meningioma
- C. Acoustic schwannoma
- D. Low grade astrocytoma
Explanation: ***Optic nerve glioma*** - **Optic nerve gliomas** are the most frequently encountered central nervous system tumors in patients with **Type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF1)**, occurring in about 15% of individuals. - They are typically low-grade **astrocytomas** and can cause vision loss and proptosis depending on their size and location. *Meningioma* - While more common in **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, meningiomas can occur in NF1, but are not the most common CNS tumor. - Meningiomas are tumors that arise from the **meninges**, the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. *Acoustic schwannoma* - **Bilateral acoustic schwannomas (vestibular schwannomas)** are the hallmark feature of **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, not NF1 [1]. - These tumors arise from the Schwann cells of the **vestibulocochlear nerve** and can cause hearing loss and balance issues [1]. *Low grade astrocytoma* - While optic nerve gliomas are a type of low-grade astrocytoma, this option is too general; **optic nerve glioma** is the specific and most common presentation in NF1. - Other forms of low-grade astrocytomas can occur in NF1 but are not as universally characteristic as optic nerve gliomas.
Question 38: Which of the following glands is NOT typically involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type II A (MEN II A)?
- A. Pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
- B. Thyroid gland
- C. Parathyroid gland
- D. Adrenal gland
Explanation: ***Pituitary gland*** - The **pituitary gland** is not a characteristic component of **MEN II A**. It is, however, associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type I (MEN I)**, which involves the 3 Ps: **pituitary**, **parathyroid**, and **pancreas** [1]. - **MEN IIA** classically involves **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, **pheochromocytoma**, and **parathyroid hyperplasia** [1]. *Thyroid gland* - The **thyroid gland** is centrally involved in MEN IIA, specifically through the development of **medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)**, a hallmark feature. - MTC arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid and secretes **calcitonin**. *Parathyroid gland* - The **parathyroid gland** is often involved in MEN IIA, typically presenting as **parathyroid hyperplasia** or adenoma, leading to **primary hyperparathyroidism**. - This typically results in elevated **parathyroid hormone** levels and **hypercalcemia**. *Adrenal gland* - The **adrenal gland** is a key player in MEN IIA due to the occurrence of **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor of the adrenal medulla. - Pheochromocytomas can be bilateral and secrete **catecholamines**, leading to hypertension and other symptoms.
Question 39: What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?
- A. 18.5-24.9
- B. 30-34.9
- C. 35-39.9
- D. 25-29.9 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***25-29.9*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** between 25 and 29.9 kg/m² is classified as **overweight** [1] or **preobesity**. - This range indicates an increased risk of developing various health problems associated with higher body weight [1]. *18.5-24.9* - This BMI range is considered **normal weight**, which is generally ideal for health [1]. - Individuals within this range typically have the lowest risk of weight-related health complications [1]. *30-34.9* - A BMI in this range is classified as **obesity class I** [1]. - This category indicates a significantly increased risk of developing co-morbidities such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease [1]. *35-39.9* - This BMI range represents **obesity class II** (severe obesity) [1]. - Individuals in this category face a high risk of serious health issues and often require more aggressive intervention strategies [1].
Question 40: Which of the following statements about polio is false?
- A. 99% non paralytic
- B. Aseptic meningitis
- C. Flaccid paralysis
- D. Increased tendon reflexes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased tendon reflexes*** - Polio causes **lower motor neuron damage**, specifically to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage leads to **flaccid paralysis** and **decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes**, not increased reflexes [3]. *99% non paralytic* - The vast majority of poliovirus infections (approximately 95-99%) are **asymptomatic** or cause only mild, non-specific symptoms. - Only a small percentage of infected individuals develop the more severe paralytic form of the disease. *Flaccid paralysis* - Poliovirus directly attacks and destroys **motor neurons** in the anterior horn of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage results in **muscle weakness** and loss of muscle tone, leading to **flaccid paralysis** [3]. *Aseptic meningitis* - About 1-5% of poliovirus infections can manifest as **aseptic meningitis**, characterized by symptoms like fever, headache, neck stiffness, and vomiting without bacterial infection [2]. - This form of meningitis is typically **self-limiting** and does not lead to paralysis [2].