NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Down beat nystagmus is seen in?

Arnold Chiari malformation and other conditions. ***Arnold Chiari malformation and other conditions*** - Downbeat nystagmus is a characteristic finding in Arnold-Chiari malformations, especially **Chiari type 1**, due to compression of cerebellar structures. - Other conditions associated with downbeat nystagmus include **medullary lesions**, **magnesium deficiency**, and **lithium toxicity** [1]. *Brain stem lesions* - While brainstem lesions can cause various nystagmus types, **pure downbeat nystagmus** is less commonly the primary or most specific finding compared to cerebellar involvement [1]. - **Upbeat nystagmus** and other complex nystagmus patterns are more often associated with brainstem lesions like those in the tegmentum. *Pontine hemorrhage and other conditions* - Pontine hemorrhages are more commonly associated with **ocular bobbing**, **blink reflex abnormalities**, or **horizontal gaze palsies**, rather than downbeat nystagmus. - A pontine hemorrhage would typically present with more severe neurological deficits such as **coma** or **quadriparesis**, which are not directly associated with isolated nystagmus. *Labyrinthine damage and other conditions* - **Peripheral vestibular abnormalities** from labyrinthine damage typically cause **horizontal or torsional nystagmus**, often suppressed by visual fixation. - Downbeat nystagmus is a **central vestibular sign**, indicating a problem with central vestibular processing rather than the peripheral labyrinth [1].

Q: This patient came to the casualty with palpitations. His ECG has been shown below. What is your diagnosis?

Supraventricular tachycardia. ***Supraventricular tachycardia*** - The ECG shows a **narrow QRS complex tachycardia** (QRS < 0.12 seconds) with a **regular rhythm** and a **rapid ventricular rate** of 150-250 bpm, which is characteristic of SVT. The P waves may be hidden within the QRS or T waves. - While specific findings for SVT types (e.g., AVNRT, AVRT) aren't detailed without more specific ECG leads or maneuvers, the overall morphology points to a supraventricular origin. *Ventricular tachycardia* - **Ventricular tachycardia** is characterized by a **wide QRS complex** (> 0.12 seconds) tachycardia, which is not seen in the provided ECG. - It often presents with **AV dissociation** (P waves dissociated from QRS complexes) and fusion beats, which are absent here. *A-V dissociation* - **AV dissociation** refers to the atria and ventricles beating independently, which can be seen in VT or complete heart block. - It is a specific ECG finding and not a primary diagnosis, especially in the context of a narrow complex tachycardia like the one shown. *Sinus tachycardia* - **Sinus tachycardia** also presents with a narrow QRS complex but is characterized by a **normal P wave morphology** preceding each QRS complex with a rate typically not exceeding 150 bpm in an adult. - The rate in the given ECG is significantly higher, and distinct P waves are likely not preceding every QRS complex, ruling out sinus tachycardia.

Q: Diagnose the underlying medical disorder based on the ECG changes.

ECG changes due to hypocalcemia. ***ECG changes due to hypocalcemia*** - **Hypocalcemia** characteristically causes a **prolonged QT interval** on the ECG due to delayed repolarization of ventricular myocytes. - This prolongation is primarily due to the lengthening of the **ST segment**, while the T wave itself is usually unchanged. *ECG changes due to hypokalemia* - **Hypokalemia** typically presents with prominent **U waves**, T wave flattening or inversion, and sometimes ST segment depression. - While it can also prolong the QT interval, the primary distinguishing feature is the presence of U waves, which are not mentioned as the main finding. *ECG changes due to hypercalcemia* - **Hypercalcemia** is associated with a **shortened QT interval** on the ECG due to accelerated repolarization. - It can also cause a shortened ST segment and widened QRS complex in severe cases. *ECG changes due to hyperkalemia* - **Hyperkalemia** classically manifests as tall, **peaked T waves**, followed by a prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and eventual sine wave pattern as it worsens. - These changes are distinctly different from the prolonged QT interval seen in hypocalcemia.

Q: Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?

GI bleeding. ***GI bleeding*** - While patients on dialysis may experience gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not a direct indication for initiating or continuing **hemodialysis**. - **GI bleeding** in end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients can be due to various causes and requires specific management of the bleeding itself, not necessarily an alteration in dialysis prescription. *Convulsions* - **Convulsions** in patients with renal failure, especially due to uremia, are a severe manifestation of **uremic encephalopathy**. - This is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** as it rapidly removes uremic toxins causing central nervous system dysfunction. *Pericarditis* - **Uremic pericarditis**, characterized by inflammation of the pericardium due to accumulation of uremic toxins, is a serious complication of renal failure. - It is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** to prevent further cardiac complications like cardiac tamponade. *Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L* - Severe **hyperkalemia** (typically > 6.0-6.5 mEq/L) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that can cause cardiac arrhythmias. - **Hemodialysis** is highly effective in rapidly removing potassium from the body and is an absolute indication, especially if unresponsive to other medical therapies.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?

Syndactyly. ***Syndactyly*** - **Syndactyly** (fusion of digits) is a congenital anomaly and is **not** a typical feature of scleroderma. - Scleroderma primarily involves **fibrosis** and vascular changes, leading to skin thickening, not digit fusion [1]. *Decrease in tone of LES* - A **decrease in tone of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** is a common gastrointestinal manifestation of scleroderma. - This leads to **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** and related symptoms due to smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis. *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - **Restrictive cardiomyopathy** can occur in scleroderma due to **myocardial fibrosis**, leading to impaired diastolic filling. - This is a serious cardiac complication that can cause **heart failure**. *Halitosis* - **Halitosis** (bad breath) can be an indirect manifestation of scleroderma, often associated with severe **GERD**. - Impaired esophageal motility and reflux are common in scleroderma and can contribute to dental problems and **oral dysbiosis**, which can cause halitosis.

Q: A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?

Early Revascularization with PCI. ***Early Revascularization with PCI*** - The patient presents with **NSTEMI** (ST depression, elevated troponins) and is already on antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. **Early revascularization** (ideally within 24 hours for high-risk NSTEMI) is indicated to restore blood flow and prevent further myocardial damage [1]. - Given the patient's history of prior **PCI** and the current NSTEMI presentation, this suggests possible **in-stent restenosis** or progression of coronary artery disease, making revascularization crucial. *Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG* - While initial conservative management with medications is appropriate, simply continuing monitoring without definitive intervention is insufficient for a **high-risk NSTEMI** patient. - The elevated troponins and ST depression indicate ongoing myocardial injury that requires active management beyond just observation [1]. *Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up* - This approach is entirely inappropriate for a patient presenting with an **acute coronary syndrome (NSTEMI)**. - Outpatient follow-up is for stable conditions, not for an ongoing cardiac event that requires urgent hospital-based intervention. *Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography* - **Immediate revascularization** (within 90 minutes) is primarily indicated for **STEMI** (ST elevation myocardial infarction). - While coronary angiography will precede PCI, the term "immediate" in this context usually refers to the urgency seen in STEMI; NSTEMI typically warrants "early" rather than "immediate" intervention (within 12-24 hours for high-risk patients like this one) [1].

Q: What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?

Rebreathing in paper bag. ***Rebreathing in paper bag*** - This helps to **increase the inspired CO2 concentration**, thereby correcting the hypocapnia (low CO2) caused by hyperventilation. - It's a simple, non-invasive method to raise arterial PCO2 and normalize blood pH in acute respiratory alkalosis. *IPPV* - **Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)** would further reduce CO2 by assisting ventilation and is typically used for respiratory *acidosis* or failure [1]. - This intervention would worsen the patient's respiratory alkalosis rather than alleviating it. *Normal saline* - **Normal saline** administration is primarily used for volume expansion or to correct electrolyte imbalances; it does not directly address respiratory alkalosis. - It would not correct the underlying issue of excessive CO2 exhalation. *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces bicarbonate reabsorption and is used to treat metabolic alkalosis or as a diuretic. - It would not be an immediate or appropriate solution for acute respiratory alkalosis and might even worsen the acid-base balance if used improperly.

Q: Adrenal reserve is best tested by means of infusion with

ACTH. ACTH - The **ACTH stimulation test**, also known as the **cosyntropin test**, is the most common dynamic test for assessing adrenal reserve. - Exogenous ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol; a subnormal response indicates adrenal insufficiency. *Corticosteroids* - **Corticosteroids** are hormones (like cortisol) produced by the adrenal glands, or synthetic versions used as medications; they do not test adrenal reserve but rather *replace* adrenal function. - Administering corticosteroids would interfere with, rather than assess, the adrenal gland's ability to produce its own hormones. *LHRH* - **Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)** is used to assess the function of the anterior pituitary gland and gonads, not the adrenal glands. - An LHRH stimulation test evaluates the pituitary's ability to release LH and FSH, which in turn stimulate gonadal hormone production. *Metyrapone* - The **metyrapone test** assesses the integrity of the **hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis** by blocking cortisol synthesis, which should lead to an increase in ACTH and 11-deoxycortisol [1]. - While it evaluates a part of adrenal function, it is primarily used to differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency, and not a direct measure of cortisol production capacity in response to stimulation.

Q: What is the recommended time frame for completing a blood transfusion after initiation?

1-4 hours. ***1-4 hours*** - This timeframe is recommended to **minimize the risk of bacterial growth** in the blood product, as bacteria can multiply quickly at room temperature. - Completing the transfusion within 4 hours also reduces the likelihood of **red blood cell degeneration** and loss of efficacy. *3-6 hours* - This period extends beyond the recommended maximum of 4 hours, increasing the risk of **bacterial proliferation** in the blood product. - Prolonged infusion times can also lead to a **decrease in the viability and function** of transfused cells. *4-8 hours* - Transfusing over 4-8 hours significantly elevates the risk of **bacterial contamination** and potential septic reactions. - The extended duration compromises the **quality and safety** of the blood product. *8-12 hours* - This timeframe is unacceptably long for a blood transfusion, posing a **critical risk of severe bacterial growth** and infection. - Blood products should not be administered beyond 4 hours due to the rapid decline in **cell integrity and increased adverse reaction potential**.

Q: What is the recommended rate of correction for sodium deficit in patients with chronic hyponatremia?

0.5 mmol/hour. ***0.5 mmol/hour*** [1] - This rate of correction is recommended to avoid **osmotic demyelination syndrome (ODS)**, also known as central pontine myelinolysis [1]. - The aim is to correct the sodium deficit gradually, with a maximum increase not exceeding **8-10 mmol/L in any 24-hour period** [1]. *1 mmol/hour* - This rate is generally considered too rapid for chronic hyponatremia and increases the risk of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - While acceptable in some acute severe cases, it is typically avoided in chronic settings where the brain has adapted to lower osmolality. *1.5 mmol/hour* - This rate would lead to an even faster correction of sodium, significantly elevating the risk of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - It would result in a correction of 36 mmol/L over 24 hours, far exceeding the recommended daily limit of 8-10 mmol/L. *2.0 mmol/hour* - Such a rapid correction rate is highly dangerous and almost guarantees the development of **osmotic demyelination syndrome**. - This aggressive correction would lead to severe brain injury due to rapid osmotic shifts.

Question 1

Down beat nystagmus is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Arnold Chiari malformation and other conditions

Answer

Brain stem lesions

Answer

Pontine hemorrhage and other conditions

Answer

Labyrinthine damage and other conditions

Question 2

This patient came to the casualty with palpitations. His ECG has been shown below. What is your diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Supraventricular tachycardia

Answer

Ventricular tachycardia

Answer

A-V dissociation

Answer

Sinus tachycardia

Question 3

Diagnose the underlying medical disorder based on the ECG changes.

Accepted Answer

ECG changes due to hypocalcemia

Answer

ECG changes due to hypokalemia

Answer

ECG changes due to hypercalcemia

Answer

ECG changes due to hyperkalemia

Question 4

Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?

Accepted Answer

GI bleeding

Answer

Convulsions

Answer

Pericarditis

Answer

Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?

Accepted Answer

Syndactyly

Answer

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Answer

Halitosis

Answer

Decrease in tone of LES

Question 6

A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?

Accepted Answer

Early Revascularization with PCI

Answer

Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG

Answer

Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up

Answer

Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography

Question 7

What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?

Accepted Answer

Rebreathing in paper bag

Answer

IPPV

Answer

Normal saline

Answer

Acetazolamide

Question 8

Adrenal reserve is best tested by means of infusion with

Accepted Answer

ACTH

Answer

Metyrapone

Answer

Corticosteroids

Answer

LHRH

Question 9

What is the recommended time frame for completing a blood transfusion after initiation?

Accepted Answer

1-4 hours

Answer

3-6 hours

Answer

4-8 hours

Answer

8-12 hours

Question 10

What is the recommended rate of correction for sodium deficit in patients with chronic hyponatremia?

Accepted Answer

0.5 mmol/hour

Answer

1 mmol/hour

Answer

1.5 mmol/hour

Answer

2.0 mmol/hour

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine