NEET-PG 2013 — Dental
16 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Killion's incision is used for?
During which sleep stage does bruxism typically occur?
What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
Which of the following methods is not recognized for dental age estimation in forensic odontology?
What is the most common cause of an oroantral fistula?
In which condition are Haab's striae typically observed?
What is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
What investigation uses dye to find out stones in the salivary gland?
In Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Killion's incision is used for?
- A. SMR
- B. Modified radical mastoidectomy
- C. Proetz puncture
- D. Septoplasty (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Septoplasty*** - Killion's incision is a **hemitransfixion incision** performed on one side of the caudal nasal septum for **septoplasty**. - This incision allows for elevation of the **mucoperichondrial flap** and access to the septal cartilage for straightening. *SMR* - **Submucous resection (SMR)** typically utilizes a **transfixion incision** or a **hemitransfixion incision** at the caudal end of the septum, but the term "Killion's incision" specifically refers to one type of hemitransfixion used in septoplasty. - SMR often involves more aggressive removal of cartilage and bone compared to modern septoplasty techniques, although both aim to correct septal deviation. *Proetz puncture* - **Proetz puncture** refers to a procedure that involves puncturing the maxillary sinus through the inferior meatus for irrigation and drainage, and it is unrelated to septal surgery. - It is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for **sinusitis**, with no external incision on the septum. *Modified radical mastoidectomy* - A **modified radical mastoidectomy** is a surgical procedure for chronic ear disease, involving an incision behind the ear (**post-aural incision**) or within the ear canal (**endaural incision**), which is completely unrelated to nasal septal surgery. - This procedure aims to create a **safe and dry ear** by exteriorizing the mastoid air cells and reducing the size of the middle ear space.
Question 2: During which sleep stage does bruxism typically occur?
- A. REM
- B. NREM stage 3, 4 (Correct Answer)
- C. NREM stage 1 and 2
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***NREM stage 3, 4*** - **Bruxism**, or teeth grinding, most commonly occurs during **deep sleep stages**, specifically NREM stages 3 and 4 (often grouped as **slow-wave sleep**). - These stages are characterized by **delta waves** on EEG and are the deepest phases of sleep. *NREM stage 1 and 2* - **NREM stage 1** is a transitional stage from wakefulness to sleep, and **NREM stage 2** is a light sleep stage. - While some sleep-related events can occur, **bruxism** is less frequent and severe during these lighter sleep stages compared to deep sleep. *REM* - **REM sleep** is characterized by vivid dreaming, muscle atonia (paralysis), and rapid eye movements. - Due to **muscle atonia**, significant teeth grinding and jaw clenching are generally inhibited during this stage. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because bruxism is a well-documented **sleep disorder** with a known association with specific sleep stages. - Research consistently points to **NREM deep sleep** as the primary period for bruxism activity.
Question 3: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
- A. First premolar
- B. Second premolar
- C. First molar (Correct Answer)
- D. Second molar
Explanation: ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.
Question 4: Which subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy?
- A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M2
- B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M3
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute Myeloid Leukemia M1
Explanation: ***M4*** - **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M4** is associated with **monocytic differentiation**, leading to gum hypertrophy due to infiltration of the gums by leukemic cells [1]. - Patients may present with **gingival bleeding**, pain, and swelling in addition to other systemic symptoms of leukemia. *M3* - Known as **acute promyelocytic leukemia**, it typically presents with **coagulopathy** and not gum hypertrophy [1]. - Characterized by **promyelocytes** with heavy granulation and the presence of **faggot cells** (auer rods) [1]. *M2* - Represents a **myeloblastic type** of acute leukemia but is less commonly associated with **gingival hyperplasia**. - Associated with **more typical myeloid features** and presents with **anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**. *M1* - This is a **minimally differentiated type** of acute myeloid leukemia with **myeloblasts** and no significant differentiating features like gum hypertrophy. - Often presents with **rapid onset of symptoms** related to bone marrow failure, rather than localized gum issues. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 620-622.
Question 5: Which of the following methods is not recognized for dental age estimation in forensic odontology?
- A. Panoramic X-ray evaluation
- B. Clinical examination
- C. Frame method (Correct Answer)
- D. Radiographic assessment
Explanation: ***Frame method*** - This is not a recognized method for **dental age estimation** in forensic odontology. The term "Frame method" does not correspond to any established technique used for this purpose. - While various imaging and assessment techniques are employed, this specific terminology is not standard. *Clinical examination* - **Clinical examination** is a foundational method for age estimation, especially in younger individuals, by observing the **eruption of deciduous and permanent teeth**. - It involves direct visual inspection of the oral cavity but has limitations for older individuals due to completed tooth eruption. *Radiographic assessment* - **Radiographic assessment** is a broad term encompassing various imaging techniques (like periapical, bitewing, or occlusal radiographs) to evaluate **tooth development stages** and **pulp calcification**, which are crucial for age estimation. - It allows for the visualization of internal tooth structures that are not visible during a clinical examination. *Panoramic X-ray evaluation* - **Panoramic X-rays** (orthopantomograms) are widely used in forensic odontology because they provide a comprehensive view of the entire dentition and surrounding structures in a single image. - They are particularly useful for assessing multiple teeth simultaneously, evaluating **tooth formation stages**, and observing **root development** and **pulp chamber changes**, which are critical indicators of age.
Question 6: What is the most common cause of an oroantral fistula?
- A. TB
- B. Penetrating injury
- C. Tooth extraction (Correct Answer)
- D. Maxillary sinusitis
Explanation: ***Tooth extraction*** - Extrinsic trauma, particularly during the **extraction of maxillary posterior teeth**, is the most frequent cause of an oroantral fistula. - The close anatomical relationship between the **roots of maxillary molars and premolars** and the floor of the maxillary sinus makes this a common complication. *TB* - While tuberculosis can cause various oral and maxillofacial lesions, it is an **extremely rare cause** of oroantral fistulas. - TB lesions typically present as **ulcerations or granulomas**, rather than direct fistulous tracts to the sinus. *Penetrating injury* - Penetrating injuries can certainly cause communication between the oral cavity and the maxillary sinus, but they are **less common than tooth extractions** in their overall incidence. - Such injuries are usually associated with **trauma or foreign bodies**, which are not the primary mechanism for most oroantral fistulas. *Maxillary sinusitis* - Maxillary sinusitis can occasionally lead to bone erosion and communication with the oral cavity, but it is **not the most common etiology** for an oroantral fistula. - Sinusitis more often causes **symptoms such as facial pain, pressure, and discharge**, rather than a direct fistula as a primary presentation.
Question 7: In which condition are Haab's striae typically observed?
- A. Buphthalmos (Correct Answer)
- B. Keratoglobus
- C. Trachoma
- D. Keratoconus
Explanation: ***Buphthalmos*** - **Haab's striae** are characteristic linear tears in **Descemet's membrane** and endothelium caused by stretching of the globe in congenital glaucoma. - They are typically seen in **buphthalmos**, which is the enlargement of the eye due to increased intraocular pressure in infancy. *Keratoglobus* - This condition involves a **globular protrusion** of the entire cornea, making it uniformly thin and bulging, but does not typically feature Haab's striae. - It is a rare congenital anomaly, distinct from the corneal stretching and tears seen in buphthalmos. *Trachoma* - **Trachoma** is a chronic infectious conjunctivitis caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis* that leads to scarring of the conjunctiva and cornea, and can cause blindness. - It is characterized by conditions like **trichiasis** and corneal pannus, not Haab's striae. *Keratoconus* - **Keratoconus** is a progressive thinning and "cone-like" protrusion of the central cornea, which causes irregular astigmatism. - It is associated with **Vogt's striae** (vertical stress lines in the posterior stroma), not Haab's striae.
Question 8: What is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
- A. Hydration
- B. IV antibiotics
- C. Image guided aspiration (Correct Answer)
- D. Reexploration
Explanation: ***Image-guided aspiration*** - This is often the **first-line treatment** for a post-operative abscess, especially if it is well-localized. - It involves **draining the pus** under imaging guidance, relieving pressure and removing the infectious material. *Hydration* - While important for overall patient management, especially in cases of infection or sepsis, **hydration alone does not treat an abscess**. - It is a supportive measure but does not address the **localized collection of pus**. *IV antibiotics* - Antibiotics are typically indicated as an **adjunct to drainage**, especially in cases of systemic infection or cellulitis. - However, **antibiotics alone are often insufficient** to resolve an abscess as they have difficulty penetrating the necrotic core and thick capsule. *Reexploration* - **Surgical reexploration** is a more invasive option usually reserved for abscesses that are **large, multiloculated, not amenable to percutaneous drainage**, or when initial drainage attempts fail. - It carries greater risks and is not the initial treatment of choice for every post-operative abscess.
Question 9: What investigation uses dye to find out stones in the salivary gland?
- A. MR angiography
- B. USG
- C. Breast imaging
- D. Sialography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sialography*** - **Sialography** is an imaging technique that involves injecting a **radiopaque dye** into the salivary ducts to visualize the internal structure and identify obstructions like stones (**sialoliths**). - This method allows for detailed imaging of the ductal system, revealing the exact location and size of stones or strictures. *Breast imaging* - **Breast imaging**, such as mammography or ultrasound of the breast, is used to detect abnormalities within the **breast tissue**. - It is completely unrelated to the diagnosis of salivary gland stones. *MR angiography* - **MR angiography (MRA)** is a type of MRI that specifically visualizes **blood vessels** and blood flow throughout the body. - It is used to detect vascular diseases, not obstructions in salivary glands. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** can visualize salivary gland stones, but it does not typically involve the use of an injected dye for this purpose. - While useful for initial screening, **sialography** provides a more detailed view of the ductal system, especially smaller or more complex stones.
Question 10: In Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
- A. Bilateral cleft palate only
- B. Bilateral cleft lip only
- C. No cleft
- D. Bilateral cleft lip and palate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bilateral cleft lip and palate*** - Veau Type IV specifically classifies cases involving a **bilateral complete cleft of both the lip and the palate**. - This is the most severe form in the Veau classification system, indicating involvement of both sides of the primary and secondary palates. *Bilateral cleft palate only* - The Veau classification primarily focuses on cleft lip and palate, not isolated palatal clefts without lip involvement. - An isolated bilateral cleft palate is not directly classified as Type IV; rather, Veau Type IV includes lip involvement. *Bilateral cleft lip only* - Veau Type IV encompasses both lip and palatal involvement, not just a bilateral cleft lip alone. - A bilateral cleft lip without a concomitant cleft palate would be classified differently within the system (e.g., Veau Type III if affecting the entire primary palate bilaterally without complete secondary palate involvement). *No cleft* - The Veau classification system is designed to categorize the presence and extent of cleft deformities, not the absence of a cleft. - This option is contrary to the purpose of a classification system for anomalies.