Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
Which type of RNA is primarily involved in gene silencing?
Which protein hormone is often referred to as the 'guardian angel against obesity' due to its role in regulating metabolism?
Carbonic anhydrase activity is found in all of the following except?
What is the approximate half-life of albumin in the human body?
What is the half-life of Prealbumin?
Which of the following is activated by calmodulin?
Which of the following statements about G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) is true?
What is the normal range of ferritin levels in adult males?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
- A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
- B. UMP synthase (Correct Answer)
- C. Orotic acid decarboxylase
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***UMP synthase*** - Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is caused by a deficiency of the **bifunctional enzyme UMP synthase** (also called UMP synthase complex). - UMP synthase catalyzes two sequential reactions in the *de novo* pyrimidine synthesis pathway: 1. **OPRT activity**: Converts orotate → orotidine 5'-monophosphate (OMP) 2. **ODC activity**: Converts OMP → uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP) - This is the **most precise and complete answer** as it identifies the actual enzyme complex that is deficient. - **Clinical features**: Megaloblastic anemia, growth retardation, immunodeficiency; responds to oral uridine supplementation. *Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase* - This represents only **one of the two catalytic activities** of the UMP synthase enzyme (the first step). - While this activity is indeed deficient in Type-I orotic aciduria, naming only this activity is **incomplete** because the enzyme has two functions. - This would be a **partial answer** rather than the complete enzyme name. *Orotic acid decarboxylase* - This represents only **the second catalytic activity** of the UMP synthase enzyme (converts OMP to UMP). - Like OPRT, this activity is also deficient, but naming only this component is **incomplete**. - **Type II orotic aciduria** (extremely rare) involves isolated ODC deficiency without OPRT deficiency. *All of the options* - While technically both OPRT and ODC activities are affected in Type-I orotic aciduria, the **standard nomenclature** refers to the deficient enzyme as **"UMP synthase"** - the name of the complete bifunctional enzyme. - In medical terminology and examination context, we identify enzyme deficiencies by the **name of the enzyme complex**, not by listing all its individual catalytic activities. - Therefore, **"UMP synthase"** is the single most accurate and complete answer.
Question 62: Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
- A. Hydrogen bond
- B. Glycosidic bond
- C. Covalent interactions
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All three types of molecular interactions listed are present in DNA structure, making this the correct answer. - **Hydrogen bonds** hold together the two strands of the DNA double helix, forming between complementary base pairs (A-T with 2 hydrogen bonds, G-C with 3 hydrogen bonds). - **Glycosidic bonds** (N-glycosidic bonds) link the nitrogenous bases to the C1' carbon of the deoxyribose sugar in each nucleotide. - **Covalent interactions** (phosphodiester bonds) form the strong, stable sugar-phosphate backbone by linking the 3' hydroxyl group of one sugar to the 5' phosphate group of the next. *Hydrogen bond* - This is a **true statement** - hydrogen bonds are essential structural components of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA structure also contains glycosidic bonds and covalent phosphodiester bonds. - If only hydrogen bonds were present, there would be no nucleotides or backbone structure. *Glycosidic bond* - This is a **true statement** - glycosidic bonds are present in every nucleotide of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA also requires hydrogen bonds for base pairing and phosphodiester bonds for the backbone. - Without other bonds, individual nucleotides could not form a functional double helix. *Covalent interactions* - This is a **true statement** - covalent phosphodiester bonds form the DNA backbone within each strand. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as it doesn't account for glycosidic bonds (nucleotide formation) or hydrogen bonds (strand pairing). - While the strongest bonds in DNA, they alone cannot create the complete double helix structure.
Question 63: Which type of RNA is primarily involved in gene silencing?
- A. rRNA
- B. tRNA
- C. miRNA (Correct Answer)
- D. mRNA
Explanation: ***miRNA*** - **miRNA** (microRNA) is a small non-coding RNA molecule that plays a crucial role in **post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression**. - It functions by binding to complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, leading to **mRNA degradation** or **inhibition of translation**, thereby silencing genes. - miRNA is the primary RNA type involved in **gene silencing** through the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway. *rRNA* - **rRNA** (ribosomal RNA) is a primary component of **ribosomes**, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. - Its main function is to **catalyze peptide bond formation** and provide structural integrity to the ribosome, not gene silencing. *tRNA* - **tRNA** (transfer RNA) is responsible for carrying specific **amino acids** to the ribosome during protein synthesis. - It acts as an adapter molecule, translating the **genetic code** in mRNA into an amino acid sequence. *mRNA* - **mRNA** (messenger RNA) carries genetic information from **DNA to ribosomes** for protein synthesis. - While mRNA can be targeted by gene silencing mechanisms (like miRNA), it is not the RNA type that performs the silencing function itself.
Question 64: Which protein hormone is often referred to as the 'guardian angel against obesity' due to its role in regulating metabolism?
- A. Adiponectin (Correct Answer)
- B. Fibronectin
- C. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
- D. Insulin
Explanation: ***Adiponectin*** - **Adiponectin** is a hormone secreted by **adipose tissue** that plays a crucial role in regulating glucose and fatty acid metabolism, increasing **insulin sensitivity**, and decreasing inflammation. - Its levels are inversely correlated with body fat percentage; individuals with obesity tend to have lower adiponectin levels, leading to its nickname as the 'guardian angel against obesity'. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, growth, migration, and differentiation, and is a key component of the **extracellular matrix**. - It does not primarily function in metabolic regulation or body weight control, unlike adiponectin. *High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)* - **HDL** is a type of lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver, a process known as **reverse cholesterol transport**. - While beneficial for cardiovascular health, HDL is a lipid-carrying particle, not a protein hormone, and its primary role is not in metabolic regulation or direct obesity prevention. *Insulin* - **Insulin** is a peptide hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates carbohydrate and fat metabolism, primarily by facilitating glucose uptake from the blood into cells. - While essential for metabolism, high levels of insulin in the context of insulin resistance can contribute to obesity, rather than act against it.
Question 65: Carbonic anhydrase activity is found in all of the following except?
- A. Brain
- B. Kidney
- C. RBC
- D. Plasma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Plasma*** - **Carbonic anhydrase** is an intracellular enzyme that catalyzes the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid, **bicarbonate**, and protons. - It is notably **absent in plasma** in healthy individuals, as it is primarily found within cells where its function is crucial for pH regulation and CO2 transport. *Brain* - Carbonic anhydrase is found in various brain cells, including **neurons**, **oligodendrocytes**, and **astrocytes**. - It plays a vital role in pH regulation, fluid balance, and the production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the **central nervous system**. *Kidney* - The kidney is rich in carbonic anhydrase, particularly in the **proximal tubules** and collecting ducts. - It is critical for **bicarbonate reabsorption** and proton excretion, essential processes for maintaining acid-base balance. *RBC* - **Red blood cells (RBCs)** contain a high concentration of carbonic anhydrase (specifically CA-I and CA-II isoforms). - This enzyme facilitates the rapid conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate for transport to the lungs and the reverse reaction for **CO2 exhalation**.
Question 66: What is the approximate half-life of albumin in the human body?
- A. 30 days
- B. 20 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 days
- D. 7 days
Explanation: ***20 days*** - The **half-life of albumin** in the human body is approximately **20 days**, reflecting the time it takes for half of the circulating albumin to be catabolized or excreted. - This relatively long half-life means that changes in albumin levels, such as those due to malnutrition or liver disease, may take several weeks to become evident. *3 days* - A half-life of 3 days is too short for albumin, which is a major, long-lasting plasma protein. - Proteins with such a short half-life typically include more rapidly turnover proteins or small peptides. *7 days* - A half-life of 7 days is also too short for albumin, which plays a critical role in maintaining plasma oncotic pressure and transporting various substances. - While some proteins have a 7-day half-life, albumin's is considerably longer. *30 days* - A half-life of 30 days is longer than the typical half-life of albumin. - While some proteins may have half-lives in this range, 20 days is the more commonly accepted value for albumin.
Question 67: What is the half-life of Prealbumin?
- A. 2 days (Correct Answer)
- B. 10 days
- C. 20 days
- D. 40 days
Explanation: ***2 days*** - Prealbumin, also known as transthyretin, has a **short half-life** of approximately 2-3 days, making it a sensitive indicator of recent changes in **nutritional status**. - Its rapid turnover allows for prompt reflection of improvement or deterioration in protein synthesis. *10 days* - A half-life of 10 days would make prealbumin less responsive to acute changes in nutrition compared to its actual turnover rate. - This duration is longer than the typical half-life of proteins used to monitor **short-term nutritional status**. *20 days* - A 20-day half-life would indicate a protein with a much slower turnover, unsuitable for monitoring **acute nutritional interventions**. - Proteins with such long half-lives, like **albumin**, reflect more chronic states rather than rapid changes. *40 days* - A half-life of 40 days is characteristic of proteins like **albumin**, which are influenced by longer-term nutritional and inflammatory processes. - Such a long half-life would not be useful for assessing immediate responses to **nutritional support** or acute disease states.
Question 68: Which of the following is activated by calmodulin?
- A. Muscle phosphorylase
- B. Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (Correct Answer)
- C. Phospholipase C
- D. Adenylyl cyclase
Explanation: ***Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase*** - **Calmodulin** is a **calcium-binding messenger protein** that, when bound to calcium, undergoes a conformational change allowing it to activate various enzymes, including **calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinases** (CaMKs). - CaMKs play crucial roles in many cellular processes, including **metabolism**, **gene expression**, and **neurotransmission**, by phosphorylating target proteins. *Muscle phosphorylase* - **Muscle phosphorylase** (glycogen phosphorylase) is primarily activated by **epinephrine**, **AMP**, and **nerve stimulation** (via calcium), but not directly by calmodulin. - Its activation leads to the breakdown of **glycogen** into glucose-1-phosphate. *Phospholipase C* - **Phospholipase C (PLC)** is typically activated by **G protein-coupled receptors** and **tyrosine kinase receptors**, leading to the production of **inositol trisphosphate (IP3)** and **diacylglycerol (DAG)**. - While it plays a role in calcium signaling upstream (releasing calcium from stores), it is not directly activated by calmodulin. *Adenylyl cyclase* - **Adenylyl cyclase (AC)** is a key enzyme in generating **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**, and is commonly regulated by **G proteins** (specifically Gs and Gi subunits). - While certain isoforms (AC1, AC3, AC8) can be directly activated by calcium/calmodulin, **CaMK** remains the most classical and direct example of calmodulin activation.
Question 69: Which of the following statements about G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) is true?
- A. The three subunits alpha, beta, and gamma must remain together as a complex for G protein to function.
- B. G proteins can act as either inhibitory or excitatory based on the type of alpha subunit. (Correct Answer)
- C. G proteins bind directly to hormones to become activated.
- D. In the resting state, G proteins are bound to GTP.
Explanation: ***G proteins can act as either inhibitory or excitatory based on the type of alpha subunit.*** - Different classes of Gα subunits (e.g., **Gαs**, **Gαi**, **Gαq**) couple to diverse downstream effectors, leading to either **stimulation** (excitatory) or **inhibition** of cellular processes. - For example, **Gαs** activates adenylyl cyclase, while **Gαi** inhibits it, demonstrating their opposing roles. *The three subunits alpha, beta, and gamma must remain together as a complex for G protein to function.* - Upon activation, the **Gα subunit dissociates** from the **Gβγ dimer**, and both free units can then independently modulate effector molecules. - For the G protein to function in signal transduction, the α subunit often separates from the βγ dimer to interact with its target enzyme or ion channel. *G proteins bind directly to hormones to become activated.* - **GPCRs** (the receptors themselves) bind to hormones or other ligands on the **extracellular side** of the membrane. - The binding of the ligand to the GPCR induces a conformational change in the receptor, which then activates the associated G protein on the intracellular side. *In the resting state, G proteins are bound to GTP.* - In the **resting (inactive) state**, the Gα subunit of the trimeric G protein is bound to **GDP**. - Activation occurs when the GPCR facilitates the exchange of **GDP for GTP** on the Gα subunit.
Question 70: What is the normal range of ferritin levels in adult males?
- A. 30-300 ng/ml (Correct Answer)
- B. 300-500 ng/ml
- C. 10-20 ng/ml
- D. 500-700 ng/ml
Explanation: ***30-300 ng/ml*** - The normal range for **ferritin levels** in adult males is typically **30-300 ng/ml** (some laboratories report 30-400 ng/ml). - Ferritin is an **iron storage protein**, and its levels reflect the body's iron stores. - Values below 30 ng/ml suggest **iron deficiency**, while values above 300 ng/ml may indicate iron overload or inflammatory conditions. *10-20 ng/ml* - These levels are **significantly low** and indicate **iron deficiency**. - This range is well below the normal threshold and would warrant investigation and likely iron supplementation. - Levels below 15 ng/ml are diagnostic of **iron deficiency** even in the absence of anemia. *300-500 ng/ml* - Levels in this range are considered **elevated** and can indicate iron overload, chronic inflammation, liver disease, or malignancy. - While some laboratories extend the upper limit to 400 ng/ml, persistent elevation above 300 ng/ml warrants further investigation. - Common causes include **hemochromatosis**, **chronic liver disease**, or **inflammatory conditions**. *500-700 ng/ml* - These levels are **significantly elevated** and strongly suggest **iron overload conditions** such as **hemochromatosis**, severe inflammatory states, or hepatocellular injury. - High ferritin levels can be associated with organ damage, leading to conditions like **cirrhosis** or **cardiomyopathy**. - Requires urgent investigation to identify the underlying cause.