What is the unit for a prolactin level of 20 in blood?
Which of the following is not an androgen?
Which type of RNA is primarily involved in gene silencing?
What is the process of Hofmann elimination in organic chemistry?
Which protein hormone is often referred to as the 'guardian angel against obesity' due to its role in regulating metabolism?
What is the primary effect of moderate alcohol consumption on cholesterol levels?
Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by ?
What is the number of variable regions present on each light and heavy chain of an antibody?
Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: What is the unit for a prolactin level of 20 in blood?
- A. ng/ml (Correct Answer)
- B. mg/ml
- C. mg/l
- D. ng/l
Explanation: ***ng/ml*** - Prolactin levels in blood are typically measured in **nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL)**, reflecting the very small concentrations of hormones. - A value of 20 ng/mL falls within the typical reference range for prolactin. *mg/mL* - **Milligrams per milliliter (mg/mL)** is a unit used for much higher concentrations, more common for drugs or larger molecules, not hormones like prolactin. - If prolactin were measured in mg/mL, a value of 20 mg/mL would be an astronomically high and physiologically impossible level. *mg/L* - **Milligrams per liter (mg/L)** is also a unit for higher concentrations than those typically seen for hormones in blood. - 20 mg/L is equivalent to 20 µg/mL or 20,000 ng/mL, which would indicate severe hyperprolactinemia. *ng/L* - **Nanograms per liter (ng/L)** is a unit for extremely low concentrations. - A reading of 20 ng/L would be too low for normal physiological prolactin levels, as 1 ng/mL equals 1000 ng/L.
Question 112: Which of the following is not an androgen?
- A. 17α-hydroxyprogesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Testosterone
- C. Dihydrotestosterone
- D. Androstenedione
Explanation: ***17α-hydroxyprogesterone*** - This is a **progesterone derivative** and an intermediate in the synthesis of androgens and corticosteroids, but it does **not possess significant androgenic activity** itself. - Its primary role is as a precursor, rather than a direct androgen. *Testosterone* - **Testosterone** is the **primary male sex hormone** and a potent androgen, responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. - It plays crucial roles in muscle mass, bone density, libido, and erythropoiesis. *Dihydrotestosterone* - **Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** is a potent androgen, formed from testosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase. - DHT is responsible for the development of external male genitalia during fetal development and contributes to prostate growth and male pattern baldness in adults. *Androstenedione* - **Androstenedione** is a **weak androgen** and an important **precursor hormone** in the biosynthesis of testosterone and estrogens. - It is produced in the adrenal glands and gonads, serving as an intermediate step in steroidogenesis.
Question 113: Which type of RNA is primarily involved in gene silencing?
- A. rRNA
- B. tRNA
- C. miRNA (Correct Answer)
- D. mRNA
Explanation: ***miRNA*** - **miRNA** (microRNA) is a small non-coding RNA molecule that plays a crucial role in **post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression**. - It functions by binding to complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, leading to **mRNA degradation** or **inhibition of translation**, thereby silencing genes. - miRNA is the primary RNA type involved in **gene silencing** through the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway. *rRNA* - **rRNA** (ribosomal RNA) is a primary component of **ribosomes**, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. - Its main function is to **catalyze peptide bond formation** and provide structural integrity to the ribosome, not gene silencing. *tRNA* - **tRNA** (transfer RNA) is responsible for carrying specific **amino acids** to the ribosome during protein synthesis. - It acts as an adapter molecule, translating the **genetic code** in mRNA into an amino acid sequence. *mRNA* - **mRNA** (messenger RNA) carries genetic information from **DNA to ribosomes** for protein synthesis. - While mRNA can be targeted by gene silencing mechanisms (like miRNA), it is not the RNA type that performs the silencing function itself.
Question 114: What is the process of Hofmann elimination in organic chemistry?
- A. E1 elimination reaction favoring tertiary substrates
- B. E2 elimination reaction producing the least substituted alkene (Correct Answer)
- C. SN1 substitution reaction with carbocation intermediate
- D. SN2 substitution reaction with inversion of configuration
Explanation: ***E2 elimination reaction producing the least substituted alkene*** - **Hofmann elimination** is a type of **E2 elimination** reaction where a **quaternary ammonium salt** is heated in the presence of a strong base. - Unlike most E2 reactions which follow **Zaitsev's rule** (producing the most substituted alkene), Hofmann elimination follows the **Hofmann rule**, leading to the formation of the **least substituted (least stable) alkene**. *SN1 substitution reaction with carbocation intermediate* - **SN1 reactions** involve the formation of a **carbocation intermediate** and are typically substitution reactions, not elimination. - Hofmann elimination is an elimination reaction and does not proceed through a carbocation intermediate. *E1 elimination reaction favoring tertiary substrates* - **E1 reactions** are a two-step process involving a **carbocation intermediate** and generally favor **tertiary substrates** and produce the **Zaitsev product**. - Hofmann elimination is a concerted, one-step E2 mechanism and does not involve carbocations. *SN2 substitution reaction with inversion of configuration* - **SN2 reactions** are **bimolecular nucleophilic substitution** reactions that occur in a single step with **inversion of configuration** at the carbon center. - Hofmann elimination is an elimination process resulting in an alkene, not a substitution product, and does not involve inversion of configuration at a stereocenter.
Question 115: Which protein hormone is often referred to as the 'guardian angel against obesity' due to its role in regulating metabolism?
- A. Adiponectin (Correct Answer)
- B. Fibronectin
- C. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
- D. Insulin
Explanation: ***Adiponectin*** - **Adiponectin** is a hormone secreted by **adipose tissue** that plays a crucial role in regulating glucose and fatty acid metabolism, increasing **insulin sensitivity**, and decreasing inflammation. - Its levels are inversely correlated with body fat percentage; individuals with obesity tend to have lower adiponectin levels, leading to its nickname as the 'guardian angel against obesity'. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, growth, migration, and differentiation, and is a key component of the **extracellular matrix**. - It does not primarily function in metabolic regulation or body weight control, unlike adiponectin. *High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)* - **HDL** is a type of lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver, a process known as **reverse cholesterol transport**. - While beneficial for cardiovascular health, HDL is a lipid-carrying particle, not a protein hormone, and its primary role is not in metabolic regulation or direct obesity prevention. *Insulin* - **Insulin** is a peptide hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates carbohydrate and fat metabolism, primarily by facilitating glucose uptake from the blood into cells. - While essential for metabolism, high levels of insulin in the context of insulin resistance can contribute to obesity, rather than act against it.
Question 116: What is the primary effect of moderate alcohol consumption on cholesterol levels?
- A. Total cholesterol
- B. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
- C. Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)
- D. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)*** - Moderate alcohol consumption is known to **increase HDL cholesterol** levels. - HDL cholesterol helps in the **reverse cholesterol transport**, removing excess cholesterol from tissues and transporting it back to the liver for excretion. *Total cholesterol* - The effect of moderate alcohol on **total cholesterol** is less consistent and may vary, as it is a sum of HDL, LDL, and 20% of VLDL. - While HDL increases, other components might remain unchanged or show minimal variation, thus not making it the primary and direct effect. *Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)* - Moderate alcohol consumption generally has **little to no significant effect** on **LDL cholesterol** levels. - Some studies suggest a slight decrease or no change, but it is not the primary lipid affected. *Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)* - There is generally **no significant direct effect** of moderate alcohol consumption on **VLDL cholesterol** levels. - Excessive alcohol intake, however, can elevate triglycerides, which are the main component of VLDL particles.
Question 117: Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by ?
- A. Simultaneous ingestion of lactose
- B. Simultaneous ingestion of phytates (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Acidic environment
Explanation: ***Simultaneous ingestion of phytates*** - **Phytates (phytic acid)** found in whole grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes can **reduce the clinical effect of vitamin D** through multiple mechanisms - Phytates **chelate calcium** and form insoluble calcium-phytate complexes, reducing calcium absorption - Since **vitamin D and calcium metabolism are closely linked**, impaired calcium absorption indirectly reduces vitamin D efficacy - Phytates can also **directly bind to vitamin D** in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing its bioavailability - Studies show that **high phytate intake increases vitamin D requirements** and can impair vitamin D status *Simultaneous ingestion of lactose* - Lactose does **not reduce** vitamin D absorption or efficacy - In fact, **dairy products are commonly fortified** with vitamin D, and the presence of lactose does not interfere with its beneficial effects - Lactose may actually **enhance calcium absorption**, which works synergistically with vitamin D *Acidic environment* - Vitamin D is a **fat-soluble vitamin** absorbed primarily in the small intestine - An acidic environment (stomach acid) is **not known to inhibit** vitamin D absorption - The absorption process occurs in the **alkaline environment of the small intestine** where fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed with dietary fats *None of the options* - This is **incorrect** as phytates do reduce the clinical effect of vitamin D through calcium chelation and direct binding mechanisms
Question 118: What is the number of variable regions present on each light and heavy chain of an antibody?
- A. 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Explanation: ***1*** - Each **light chain** and **heavy chain** within an antibody molecule contains **one variable region (V domain)**. - These variable regions are crucial for **antigen binding specificity**, as they combine to form the antigen-binding site. - The variable domain is located at the **N-terminal end** of each chain. *2* - While a complete antibody molecule has **two antigen-binding sites** (bivalent), each formed by pairing of VH and VL domains, individual chains possess only **one variable region each**. - The number '2' refers to the total number of identical binding sites on the intact antibody, not the number of variable regions per chain. *3* - The number **3** does not correspond to the number of variable regions on individual chains. - This might be confused with the **three complementarity-determining regions (CDRs)** present within each variable domain (CDR1, CDR2, CDR3), which are hypervariable loops that directly contact the antigen. *4* - The number **4** is incorrect for variable regions. - This number corresponds to the total number of **polypeptide chains** in a complete IgG antibody (2 heavy + 2 light chains), or the number of **constant domains** in some heavy chain isotypes (IgM, IgE have 4 CH domains).
Question 119: Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
- A. IgA
- B. IgG
- C. IgM (Correct Answer)
- D. IgE
Explanation: ***IgM*** - **IgM** is known for its **heat lability** and is readily denatured at 56°C within a few minutes. - This characteristic is due to its **pentameric structure** held together by disulfide bonds and J chains, which are sensitive to thermal denaturation. - Heat lability of IgM is clinically important in complement fixation tests and other laboratory assays where heat inactivation is performed. - IgM is the first antibody produced in primary immune response and its heat sensitivity distinguishes it from other immunoglobulins. *IgA* - **IgA** exists in monomeric (serum) and dimeric (secretory) forms and shows moderate stability to heat. - Secretory IgA is relatively stable as it needs to function in harsh mucosal environments, though not as heat-resistant as IgG. - Does not exhibit the pronounced heat lability characteristic of IgM. *IgG* - **IgG** is the most stable immunoglobulin and is highly resistant to heat denaturation. - Can withstand temperatures up to 60-70°C without significant loss of activity. - Its monomeric structure with strong intramolecular bonds provides exceptional thermal stability. - Most abundant antibody in serum and has the longest half-life. *IgE* - **IgE** is actually quite stable to heat and can withstand 56°C for extended periods. - While it has a short half-life in serum (2-3 days), this is due to receptor binding rather than heat instability. - Important in type I hypersensitivity reactions and parasitic infections. - Does not show the characteristic heat lability that defines IgM.
Question 120: Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Haptoglobin
- C. Endothelin (Correct Answer)
- D. Fibrinogen
Explanation: ***Endothelin*** - Endothelin is a **vasoconstrictive peptide** primarily involved in regulating **blood vessel tone** and blood pressure. - While it plays a role in processes like inflammation and tissue repair, it is not synthesized or regulated in the same rapid, systemic manner as a classic acute phase reactant. *C-reactive protein* - **C-reactive protein (CRP)** is a rapidly responding acute phase reactant produced by the liver in response to **inflammation**, infection, and tissue injury. - Its levels can rise dramatically within hours of an inflammatory stimulus and are used as a marker for disease activity. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** is an acute phase reactant that binds to free **hemoglobin** released from red blood cells during hemolysis, preventing oxidative damage. - Its levels typically increase during acute inflammation or infection, although it can also decrease with severe hemolysis. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a critical acute phase protein involved in the **coagulation cascade** and wound healing. - Its concentration increases significantly during acute inflammation, contributing to the elevated **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)**.