Regarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?
Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by?
Which of the following anesthetic agents is most notable for its analgesic properties?
Which of the following statements about Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is true?
What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?
Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?
Which drug is commonly used for emergency intubation?
Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?
Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Regarding propofol, which one of the following statements is false?
- A. It is painful on injecting intravenously
- B. It has no muscle relaxant property
- C. It is used as an intravenous induction agent
- D. It causes severe vomiting (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It causes severe vomiting*** - Propofol is actually known for its **antiemetic properties**, meaning it helps *prevent* rather than cause nausea and vomiting. - This makes it a preferred anesthetic for procedures where **postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)** are a concern. *It is used as an intravenous induction agent* - **Propofol** is a widely used **intravenous anesthetic** for the **induction and maintenance of general anesthesia**. - It provides a rapid onset of unconsciousness due to its high lipid solubility. *It is painful on injecting intravenously* - Injection of propofol can often cause **pain at the injection site**, particularly when administered into smaller veins. - This pain can be mitigated by co-administering **lidocaine** or using larger veins. *It has no muscle relaxant property* - Propofol does **not possess intrinsic muscle relaxant properties**; patients require additional neuromuscular blocking agents for surgical relaxation. - It facilitates intubation by causing **loss of consciousness** and **reducing airway reflexes**, but does not directly relax skeletal muscles.
Question 22: Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by?
- A. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- B. Etomidate
- C. Propofol
- D. Thiopentone
Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is a unique anesthetic that produces a state of **dissociative anesthesia**, characterized by a trance-like state, analgesia, amnesia, and catalepsy. - This effect is primarily due to its antagonism of the **N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor**. *Etomidate* - **Etomidate** is an intravenous anesthetic characterized by its **cardiovascular stability**, making it suitable for patients with heart conditions. - It works primarily by modulating **GABA-A receptors** but does not produce dissociative anesthesia. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is a widely used intravenous anesthetic known for its **rapid onset and recovery**, and it is often used for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. - Its primary mechanism of action involves enhancing the effects of **GABA-A receptors**, leading to central nervous system depression, but not dissociative anesthesia. *Thiopentone* - **Thiopentone** (Thiopental) is a barbiturate anesthetic that causes rapid loss of consciousness and has been historically used for inducing general anesthesia. - It acts as a **GABA-A receptor agonist**, depressing the central nervous system, but it does not produce the distinct dissociative state seen with ketamine.
Question 23: Which of the following anesthetic agents is most notable for its analgesic properties?
- A. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- B. Thiopentone
- C. Propofol
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is unique among general anesthetics for its significant **analgesic properties**, which stem from its action as an **NMDA receptor antagonist**. - Its ability to provide pain relief makes it useful in scenarios where both **anesthesia** and **analgesia** are desired, such as for painful procedures or in trauma settings. *Propofol* - While **propofol** is a widely used intravenous anesthetic, it lacks intrinsic **analgesic properties**. Its primary effects are **sedation** and **hypnosis**. - Pain during propofol injection is common, and other analgesics are usually co-administered for painful procedures. *Thiopentone* - **Thiopentone** is an ultrashort-acting barbiturate primarily used for **induction of anesthesia** due to its rapid onset and profound hypnotic effects. - It has **no analgesic properties** and can even lower the pain threshold, requiring concurrent administration of analgesics.
Question 24: Which of the following statements about Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is true?
- A. Least potent inhalational anesthetic (Correct Answer)
- B. Lighter than air
- C. Effective muscle relaxant
- D. Does not cause diffusion hypoxia
Explanation: **Least potent inhalational anesthetic** - Nitrous oxide has a **high Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)** of approximately 104%, making it the least potent of the commonly used inhalational anesthetics. - Its high MAC means a very high concentration is required to achieve surgical anesthesia, which is why it is typically used as an adjunct to more potent agents. *Lighter than air* - The molecular weight of nitrous oxide (N2O) is 44, which is **heavier than air** (average molecular weight approximately 29 g/mol). - Its density is greater than air, meaning it would tend to sink rather than rise. *Effective muscle relaxant* - Nitrous oxide provides **minimal to no skeletal muscle relaxation** benefits. - If muscle relaxation is required, a neuromuscular blocking agent must be administered separately. *Does not cause diffusion hypoxia* - Nitrous oxide rapidly diffuses out of the blood into the alveoli during emergence, diluting the oxygen and carbon dioxide there. - This rapid diffusion can lead to **diffusion hypoxia** (also known as the "second gas effect"), necessitating the administration of 100% oxygen during recovery to prevent this complication.
Question 25: What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased ICT
- C. Delirium (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Delirium*** - Ketamine is known to cause **emergence phenomena**, which include **vivid dreams, hallucinations**, and **delirium**, particularly during recovery from anesthesia. - This psychotomimetic effect can be distressing for patients and may necessitate the co-administration of a **benzodiazepine** to mitigate these symptoms. *Increased heart rate* - While ketamine does cause an **increase in heart rate** and **blood pressure** due to sympathetic stimulation, this is often considered a disadvantage but not the *most significant* when compared to the unique cognitive side effects. - This effect can be beneficial in patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but can be problematic in those with **cardiovascular disease**. *Increased ICT* - It is often considered a contraindication in patients with **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)** as it can potentially increase **cerebral blood flow** and thus ICP. - However, recent studies suggest that in adequately ventilated patients, the effect on ICP may be less pronounced than previously thought, making delirium a more consistent and prominent disadvantage for many patients. *All of the options* - While ketamine can cause an **increased heart rate** and potentially affect **intracranial pressure**, **delirium** and other emergence phenomena are often highlighted as a unique and significant disadvantage because they are highly distressing and difficult to manage. - The psychotomimetic effects are a hallmark side effect that often governs its cautious use without concurrent medication.
Question 26: Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in renal failure?
- A. Isoflurane
- B. Desflurane
- C. Halothane
- D. Methoxyflurane (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Methoxyflurane*** - Methoxyflurane undergoes significant **metabolism** to produce inorganic **fluoride ions**, which are directly **nephrotoxic**. - This nephrotoxicity can cause **high-output renal failure** with reduced concentrating ability, making it contraindicated in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. *Isoflurane* - Isoflurane is minimally metabolized and produces very low levels of **fluoride ions**, making it generally **safe** for use in patients with renal failure. - Its elimination is primarily via the **lungs**, with very little hepatic metabolism or renal excretion of active compounds. *Desflurane* - Desflurane is also minimally metabolized, similar to isoflurane, and therefore produces negligible amounts of **fluoride ions**. - It is considered a **safe option** for patients with renal impairment due to its predominantly pulmonary elimination and lack of nephrotoxic metabolites. *Halothane* - While halothane can cause **hepatotoxicity**, it is generally **not directly nephrotoxic** in the way methoxyflurane is. - Its metabolism, though more extensive than isoflurane or desflurane, does not produce clinically significant levels of nephrotoxic fluoride ions to contraindicate its use in renal failure.
Question 27: Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding rapid induction of anesthesia?
- A. Suxamethonium is often used.
- B. Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.
- C. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
- D. Sellick's maneuver is always required. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sellick's maneuver is always required.*** - **Sellick's maneuver**, or cricoid pressure, is applied to compress the esophagus against the vertebrae, aiming to prevent **gastric regurgitation** and aspiration during rapid sequence intubation (RSI). - While historically considered a standard component of RSI, its routine use has been increasingly questioned due to a lack of strong evidence supporting its efficacy and potential to impede glottic visualization and intubation. It is not "always" required; its application is often at the discretion of the anesthetist based on patient factors and risk assessment. *Pre-oxygenation is mandatory* - **Pre-oxygenation** is a critical step in rapid sequence induction, involving administering 100% oxygen for several minutes prior to induction. - This denitrogenates the functional residual capacity (FRC), creating an oxygen reservoir that extends the safe apnea time, thus preventing **hypoxemia** during the intubation attempt. *Suxamethonium is often used.* - **Suxamethonium** (succinylcholine) is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker primarily used in rapid sequence intubation due to its **ultra-rapid onset** (30-60 seconds) and short duration of action (5-10 minutes). - Its rapid action facilitates quick muscle relaxation for tracheal intubation, which is crucial for minimizing the risk of aspiration in patients with a full stomach or other risk factors. *Mechanical ventilation is typically avoided before intubation.* - During rapid sequence induction, **positive pressure ventilation** with a bag-valve mask is typically avoided before intubation to prevent gastric insufflation. - Gastric insufflation can increase the risk of **regurgitation** and pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, which is a major concern in patients undergoing RSI.
Question 28: Which drug is commonly used for emergency intubation?
- A. None of the options
- B. Etomidate (Correct Answer)
- C. Propofol
- D. Ketamine
Explanation: ***Etomidate*** - Etomidate is a **short-acting nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic** often preferred for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) due to its minimal impact on **hemodynamic stability**. - It induces **rapid unconsciousness** with a quick onset and offset, making it suitable for emergency airway management in patients who are hemodynamically compromised. *Propofol* - Propofol is a **potent intravenous anesthetic** that can cause significant **hypotension** due to vasodilation and myocardial depression. - While it provides rapid onset of sedation and amnesia, its cardiovascular side effects make it less ideal for patients with **unstable hemodynamics** during emergency intubation. *Ketamine* - Ketamine is a **dissociative anesthetic** that causes a cataleptic state, amnesia, and analgesia, often leading to **bronchodilation** and cardiovascular stimulation. - While useful in patients with **reactive airway disease** or hypotension, it can increase intracranial pressure and may induce sympathetic stimulation, which might not be ideal for all emergency intubation scenarios. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Etomidate is a commonly used drug** for emergency intubation, particularly where hemodynamic stability is a concern. - Other agents are also used but Etomidate is a clear clinical choice in many situations.
Question 29: Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic?
- A. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- B. Nitrous Oxide
- C. Isoflurane
- D. Propofol
Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is known to increase **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, making it generally avoided in patients with glaucoma or penetrating eye injuries. - This effect is thought to be due to its dissociative properties, causing **nystagmus**, and stimulating extraocular muscles. *Nitrous Oxide* - **Nitrous oxide** by itself has minimal or no direct effect on **intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - However, in cases of an air-filled globe (e.g., after retinal detachment surgery), it can increase IOP by expanding the gas bubble. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane**, like most volatile anesthetics, typically **decreases intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This reduction is generally due to its effects on reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is known for its ability to **decrease intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - This effect is mediated by a reduction in aqueous humor production and an increase in uveoscleral outflow, making it a favorable choice in ophthalmic surgery.
Question 30: Inhalational agent of choice for neurosurgery?
- A. Halothane
- B. Enflurane
- C. Isoflurane (Correct Answer)
- D. N2O
Explanation: ***Isoflurane*** - **Isoflurane** is preferred in neurosurgery due to its minimal impact on **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure (ICP)**, allowing cerebral autoregulation to be largely preserved. - It maintains **cerebral perfusion pressure** well and has a relatively fast onset and offset, facilitating neurological assessment post-operatively. *Halothane* - **Halothane** significantly increases **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure (ICP)**, which is undesirable in neurosurgical patients. - Its slow elimination can prolong recovery and neurological assessment, making it unsuitable for neurosurgery. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** can cause central nervous system excitation and has been associated with **seizure activity** at higher concentrations, making it contraindicated in neurosurgical procedures. - Like halothane, it can also increase **cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure**. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide (N2O)** should be avoided in neurosurgery, especially if there's a risk of **intracranial air** or **pneumocephalus**, as it can expand air-filled spaces and increase ICP. - It also has a weak anesthetic effect and is often combined with other agents, but its cerebral vasodilatory properties can still be problematic.