NEET-PG 2013

Q: Terminal branches of the internal carotid artery are all except?

Ophthalmic artery. ***Ophthalmic artery*** - The **ophthalmic artery** is a **branch** (not a terminal branch) of the internal carotid artery that arises shortly after the ICA emerges from the cavernous sinus. - It enters the orbit through the optic canal to supply the eye, orbit, and surrounding structures. - Terminal branches are the **final divisions** of a vessel, not branches that arise earlier in its course. *Anterior cerebral artery* - The **anterior cerebral artery (ACA)** is one of the **two terminal branches** of the internal carotid artery. - It supplies the medial surfaces of the frontal and parietal lobes. - It arises at the terminal bifurcation of the ICA in the supraclinoid region. *Middle cerebral artery* - The **middle cerebral artery (MCA)** is the other **terminal branch** of the internal carotid artery. - It is the larger of the two terminal branches and supplies the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres. - It supplies critical areas including the motor and sensory cotices. *Posterior communicating artery* - The **posterior communicating artery (PCoA)** arises near the terminal bifurcation of the ICA and connects it to the posterior cerebral artery. - While technically a branch (not terminal), it arises very close to the terminal bifurcation point. - It is part of the circle of Willis, providing collateral circulation between anterior and posterior cerebral circulation. [Practice more NEET-PG 2013 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Boundaries of the anatomical snuff box are all except

ECU. ***ECU*** - The **extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU)** is not a boundary of the anatomical snuff box. Its tendon inserts into the base of the 5th metacarpal, medial to the snuffbox [1][2]. - The ECU's function is **wrist extension** and **ulnar deviation**, and it does not form part of the snuffbox's borders [1]. *APL* - The **abductor pollicis longus (APL)** tendon forms the **anterior (radial) boundary** of the anatomical snuff box [1][2]. - It inserts into the base of the 1st metacarpal and is responsible for **abducting the thumb** [1]. *EPL* - The **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon forms the **posterior (ulnar) boundary** of the anatomical snuff box [1][2]. - It inserts into the distal phalanx of the thumb and is responsible for **extending the thumb interphalangeal joint**. *EPB* - The **extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)** tendon forms part of the **anterior (radial) boundary** along with the APL [1][2]. - It inserts into the proximal phalanx of the thumb and aids in **extending the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint** [1]. [Practice more NEET-PG 2013 questions on OnCourse]

Q: What is the major apolipoprotein of chylomicrons?

B-48. ***B-48*** - **Apolipoprotein B-48** is exclusively produced in the intestine and is the **major structural apolipoprotein** found only on **chylomicrons**. - It is critical for the **assembly and secretion of chylomicrons** from intestinal cells into the lymphatic system. - ApoB-48 represents the N-terminal 48% of ApoB-100 and lacks the LDL receptor-binding domain. *B-100* - **Apolipoprotein B-100** is synthesized in the liver and is the primary structural apolipoprotein of **VLDL, IDL, and LDL**. - It acts as the **ligand for the LDL receptor**, facilitating the uptake of cholesterol into cells. *Apo-C* - **Apolipoprotein C (Apo-C)** proteins (e.g., ApoC-II, ApoC-III) are exchangeable apolipoproteins found on several lipoproteins, including chylomicrons, VLDL, and HDL. - **ApoC-II activates lipoprotein lipase**, which hydrolyzes triglycerides, but these are **not structural proteins** and are present in smaller quantities. *Apo-E* - **Apolipoprotein E (Apo-E)** is acquired by chylomicrons in circulation and is important for **chylomicron remnant clearance** by the liver. - While present on chylomicrons, it is **not the major structural apolipoprotein** – that role belongs to ApoB-48. [Practice more NEET-PG 2013 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Killion's incision is used for?

Septoplasty. ***Septoplasty*** - Killion's incision is a **hemitransfixion incision** performed on one side of the caudal nasal septum for **septoplasty**. - This incision allows for elevation of the **mucoperichondrial flap** and access to the septal cartilage for straightening. *SMR* - **Submucous resection (SMR)** typically utilizes a **transfixion incision** or a **hemitransfixion incision** at the caudal end of the septum, but the term "Killion's incision" specifically refers to one type of hemitransfixion used in septoplasty. - SMR often involves more aggressive removal of cartilage and bone compared to modern septoplasty techniques, although both aim to correct septal deviation. *Proetz puncture* - **Proetz puncture** refers to a procedure that involves puncturing the maxillary sinus through the inferior meatus for irrigation and drainage, and it is unrelated to septal surgery. - It is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for **sinusitis**, with no external incision on the septum. *Modified radical mastoidectomy* - A **modified radical mastoidectomy** is a surgical procedure for chronic ear disease, involving an incision behind the ear (**post-aural incision**) or within the ear canal (**endaural incision**), which is completely unrelated to nasal septal surgery. - This procedure aims to create a **safe and dry ear** by exteriorizing the mastoid air cells and reducing the size of the middle ear space. [Practice more NEET-PG 2013 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Congenital passive immunity is INADEQUATE in -

Pertussis. ***Pertussis*** - **Congenital passive immunity** against *Bordetella pertussis* is **most inadequate** among the listed infections. - **Minimal transplacental transfer** of protective IgG antibodies occurs, and maternal antibodies decline rapidly in infants. - Newborns have **virtually no protection** from maternal antibodies, making them highly susceptible to severe whooping cough. - This is why **early vaccination at 6 weeks** is critical, unlike measles which can wait until 9-12 months. *Measles* - Maternal antibodies provide **excellent passive immunity** protecting infants for **6-9 months**. - This robust protection is why measles vaccination is delayed until 9-12 months of age. - Represents the **gold standard** of effective maternal antibody transfer. *Mumps* - Maternal antibodies provide **good passive immunity** in early infancy. - Mumps in young infants is rare due to this maternal protection. *RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)* - Maternal antibodies provide **limited but present** passive immunity. - Unlike pertussis where protection is nearly absent, RSV maternal antibodies can **reduce severity** of illness. - However, RSV remains a major cause of bronchiolitis in infants despite this partial protection. - The key difference: RSV has **some** maternal protection (inadequate but present), whereas pertussis has **almost none** (most inadequate). [Practice more NEET-PG 2013 questions on OnCourse]

1544 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

1544

Questions

Subjects

Anatomy

2 questions

Terminal branches of the internal carotid artery are all except?

Boundaries of the anatomical snuff box are all except

NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Terminal branches of the internal carotid artery are all except?

A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Ophthalmic artery (Correct Answer)
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Posterior communicating artery

Explanation: ***Ophthalmic artery*** - The **ophthalmic artery** is a **branch** (not a terminal branch) of the internal carotid artery that arises shortly after the ICA emerges from the cavernous sinus. - It enters the orbit through the optic canal to supply the eye, orbit, and surrounding structures. - Terminal branches are the **final divisions** of a vessel, not branches that arise earlier in its course. *Anterior cerebral artery* - The **anterior cerebral artery (ACA)** is one of the **two terminal branches** of the internal carotid artery. - It supplies the medial surfaces of the frontal and parietal lobes. - It arises at the terminal bifurcation of the ICA in the supraclinoid region. *Middle cerebral artery* - The **middle cerebral artery (MCA)** is the other **terminal branch** of the internal carotid artery. - It is the larger of the two terminal branches and supplies the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres. - It supplies critical areas including the motor and sensory cotices. *Posterior communicating artery* - The **posterior communicating artery (PCoA)** arises near the terminal bifurcation of the ICA and connects it to the posterior cerebral artery. - While technically a branch (not terminal), it arises very close to the terminal bifurcation point. - It is part of the circle of Willis, providing collateral circulation between anterior and posterior cerebral circulation.

Question 2: Boundaries of the anatomical snuff box are all except

A. ECU (Correct Answer)
B. APL
C. EPL
D. EPB

Explanation: ***ECU*** - The **extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU)** is not a boundary of the anatomical snuff box. Its tendon inserts into the base of the 5th metacarpal, medial to the snuffbox [1][2]. - The ECU's function is **wrist extension** and **ulnar deviation**, and it does not form part of the snuffbox's borders [1]. *APL* - The **abductor pollicis longus (APL)** tendon forms the **anterior (radial) boundary** of the anatomical snuff box [1][2]. - It inserts into the base of the 1st metacarpal and is responsible for **abducting the thumb** [1]. *EPL* - The **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon forms the **posterior (ulnar) boundary** of the anatomical snuff box [1][2]. - It inserts into the distal phalanx of the thumb and is responsible for **extending the thumb interphalangeal joint**. *EPB* - The **extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)** tendon forms part of the **anterior (radial) boundary** along with the APL [1][2]. - It inserts into the proximal phalanx of the thumb and aids in **extending the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint** [1].

Biochemistry

1 questions

What is the major apolipoprotein of chylomicrons?

Dental

1 questions

Killion's incision is used for?

Microbiology

2 questions

Congenital passive immunity is INADEQUATE in -

Which of the following organisms does not fulfill Koch's postulates?

NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Congenital passive immunity is INADEQUATE in -

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)
D. Pertussis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Pertussis*** - **Congenital passive immunity** against *Bordetella pertussis* is **most inadequate** among the listed infections. - **Minimal transplacental transfer** of protective IgG antibodies occurs, and maternal antibodies decline rapidly in infants. - Newborns have **virtually no protection** from maternal antibodies, making them highly susceptible to severe whooping cough. - This is why **early vaccination at 6 weeks** is critical, unlike measles which can wait until 9-12 months. *Measles* - Maternal antibodies provide **excellent passive immunity** protecting infants for **6-9 months**. - This robust protection is why measles vaccination is delayed until 9-12 months of age. - Represents the **gold standard** of effective maternal antibody transfer. *Mumps* - Maternal antibodies provide **good passive immunity** in early infancy. - Mumps in young infants is rare due to this maternal protection. *RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)* - Maternal antibodies provide **limited but present** passive immunity. - Unlike pertussis where protection is nearly absent, RSV maternal antibodies can **reduce severity** of illness. - However, RSV remains a major cause of bronchiolitis in infants despite this partial protection. - The key difference: RSV has **some** maternal protection (inadequate but present), whereas pertussis has **almost none** (most inadequate).

Question 2: Which of the following organisms does not fulfill Koch's postulates?

A. E.coli
B. T. pallidum (Correct Answer)
C. M. tuberculosis
D. All of the options

Explanation: ***T. pallidum*** - **_Treponema pallidum_**, the causative agent of **syphilis**, cannot be cultured on artificial media, failing the third Koch's postulate. - Its inability to grow in pure culture makes it difficult to reproducibly cause disease in an experimental host by direct inoculation of a cultured organism. *M. tuberculosis* - **_Mycobacterium tuberculosis_** can be isolated and grown in **pure culture** on specific media like Löwenstein-Jensen medium. - It also consistently causes tuberculosis when inoculated into susceptible animals, fulfilling Koch's postulates. *E.coli* - **_Escherichia coli_** is readily cultured in various laboratory media and can be isolated from infected hosts. - Specific pathogenic strains of _E. coli_ (e.g., EHEC) fulfill Koch's postulates by reproducing disease in animal models. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because both **_M. tuberculosis_** and **_E. coli_** largely fulfill Koch's postulates. - The primary exception among the given options is **_T. pallidum_** due to its unculturable nature.

Obstetrics and Gynecology

1 questions

Uterine rupture is least common with which of the following surgical techniques?

Pathology

2 questions

Clear cell variety of renal cell carcinoma is related to a gene located on which chromosome?

Job's syndrome is which of the following types of immunodeficiency disease?

NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Clear cell variety of renal cell carcinoma is related to a gene located on which chromosome?

A. X
B. 22
C. 20
D. 3 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***3*** - The **clear cell variety of renal cell carcinoma** (RCC) is associated with **mutations in the VHL gene**, which is located on chromosome **3** [1]. - This gene plays a crucial role in the **regulation of angiogenesis**, and its inactivation leads to tumor development. *22* - Chromosome **22** is associated with other disorders but not specifically with clear cell RCC or its genetic mutations. - Renal cell carcinoma primarily relates to **chromosome 3**, not chromosome 22 [1]. *X* - The **X chromosome** has other oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes but is not linked to clear cell RCC specifically. - Mutations in the **VHL gene** on chromosome 3 are the key factors, not those found on the X chromosome. *20* - Chromosome **20** does not contain significant genes linked to clear cell renal cell carcinoma. - The notable genetic association is with chromosome **3**, specifically the VHL gene [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 958-959.

Question 2: Job's syndrome is which of the following types of immunodeficiency disease?

A. humoral immunodeficiency
B. Disorder of phagocytosis (Correct Answer)
C. Cellular immunodeficiency
D. Disorder of complement

Explanation: ***Disorder of phagocytosis*** - Job's syndrome (Hyper-IgE syndrome) is primarily classified as a **disorder of phagocytosis** due to defective **neutrophil chemotaxis** - The hallmark feature is **impaired neutrophil migration** to sites of infection, leading to recurrent **staphylococcal skin abscesses** and **pneumonias with pneumatocele formation** - Caused by **STAT3 mutations** (autosomal dominant form), which affect multiple immune pathways but clinically manifest predominantly as phagocyte dysfunction - Classic triad: **elevated IgE** (>2000 IU/mL), **recurrent skin and lung infections**, and **characteristic facies** *Cellular immunodeficiency* - While STAT3 mutations do affect T-cell function (particularly Th17 differentiation), the **primary clinical manifestation** is phagocyte dysfunction - Pure cellular immunodeficiencies like **DiGeorge syndrome** present with viral and fungal infections, which are not the predominant feature in Job's syndrome - The classification is based on the **dominant clinical defect**, which in Job's syndrome is impaired neutrophil chemotaxis *humoral immunodeficiency* - Despite markedly elevated IgE levels, patients have relatively preserved **antibody production** against most pathogens - Humoral deficiencies like **X-linked agammaglobulinemia** present with low immunoglobulin levels and recurrent encapsulated bacterial infections - The elevated IgE in Job's syndrome is a consequence of dysregulated cytokine signaling, not a primary antibody production defect *Disorder of complement* - Complement disorders result from defects in the **complement cascade proteins** (C1-C9) - These typically present with recurrent **Neisseria infections** or autoimmune phenomena like SLE - Job's syndrome does not involve complement pathway defects and presents with characteristic staphylococcal infections

Psychiatry

1 questions

A person presents to the outpatient department with tremors and visual hallucinations after a 2-day history of alcohol cessation. What is the diagnosis?