NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery Practice Questions

Q: What is the standard intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy?

9th. ***Correct Option: 9th*** - The **9th intercostal space** in the mid-axillary line is the standard and most commonly used entry point for percutaneous liver biopsy. - This location provides safe access to the **right lobe of the liver** while avoiding injury to the **pleura** and **lungs** superiorly and minimizing risk to the **kidney** and other abdominal organs inferiorly. - At this level, the liver is sufficiently large and the approach avoids the pleural reflection, which typically descends to the 8th-9th intercostal space. - Standard surgical textbooks (Sabiston, Schwartz) recommend the **8th-10th intercostal space**, with the 9th being most frequently used. *Incorrect Option: 5th* - The **5th intercostal space** is far too high for liver biopsy and would result in puncturing the **lung** or **pleura**, causing **pneumothorax** or hemothorax. - This space is well above the liver margin and is not suitable for hepatic access. *Incorrect Option: 7th* - While the **7th intercostal space** may occasionally be mentioned, it is generally considered **too high** for routine percutaneous liver biopsy. - This level carries increased risk of **pleural injury** as the pleural reflection may extend to this level, especially during deep inspiration. - It is not the standard or preferred approach in current surgical practice. *Incorrect Option: 11th* - The **11th intercostal space** is too low and significantly increases the risk of injuring the **right kidney** or entering the peritoneal cavity with potential injury to bowel or other abdominal structures. - This space is below the optimal liver access zone and is not recommended for routine liver biopsy.

Q: Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:

Airway management. ***Airway management*** - In trauma, **establishing and maintaining a patent airway** is the absolute priority, as compromised breathing can lead to rapid deterioration and death. - The **ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** of trauma care dictate that airway intervention precedes other life-saving measures. *Management of shock* - While crucial, **managing shock (C)** follows **airway (A)** and **breathing (B)** in the primary survey of trauma care. - Addressing profound shock without a patent airway can be ineffective and leads to irreversible damage. *Splinting of limbs* - **Splinting fractures** is important for pain control, preventing further injury, and minimizing blood loss in open fractures, but it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. - This falls under the **secondary survey** or definitive management, after life-threatening issues have been addressed. *Cervical spine protection* - **Cervical spine protection** is essential in trauma to prevent further neurological injury and is performed simultaneously with airway management (often with in-line stabilization). - However, a patent airway is the **most immediate life-sustaining intervention** if the airway is compromised.

Q: What type of burn is characterized by flash burn, tenderness, redness, and pain?

First degree burn. ***First degree burn*** - Characterized by **tenderness**, **redness**, and **pain** without blistering. - Involves only the **epidermis**, typically from a **flash burn** or brief contact with a hot object. *Scalded burn* - A type of burn caused by **hot liquid or steam**, not a characteristic of a specific burn depth. - Can be superficial or deep, depending on the **temperature** and **duration of exposure**. *Second degree burn* - Involves the **epidermis and dermis**, presenting with **blisters**, severe pain, and sometimes a wet, weeping appearance. - Often heals with scarring, unlike first-degree burns. *Fourth degree burn* - The most severe type of burn, extending through **all layers of skin** into underlying **muscle**, **tendons**, or **bone**. - Often appears charred or black, and victims may feel little pain due to extensive nerve damage.

Q: Which muscle flap is commonly used for autologous breast reconstruction after mastectomy?

Latissimus dorsi. ***Latissimus dorsi*** - The **latissimus dorsi** muscle is commonly used in **autologous breast reconstruction** due to its rich blood supply and ample tissue volume which can be transferred as a **pedicled flap** to the chest. - This flap includes muscle, skin, and subcutaneous fat, providing a good aesthetic outcome for **breast mound reconstruction** after mastectomy. *Deltopectoral* - The **deltopectoral flap** is primarily used for **head and neck reconstruction**, specifically for oral cavity and pharyngeal defects. - It involves muscle and skin from the **chest and shoulder region**, but its size and location make it less suitable for comprehensive breast reconstruction. *Serratus anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle is occasionally used as a **free flap** for small soft tissue defects, but it is not typically the first choice for large-volume breast reconstruction. - Its primary role is in **shoulder movement** and it does not provide sufficient tissue bulk for a complete breast mound. *Trapezius* - The **trapezius flap** is more commonly employed in **head and neck reconstruction** or for covering defects in the posterior shoulder region. - While it offers a good blood supply, its bulk and orientation are not ideal for **breast reconstruction**, which requires a more anterior and hemispheric shape.

Q: The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

Umbilical granuloma. ***Umbilical granuloma*** - An **umbilical granuloma** is a common condition in newborns, presenting as a soft, red, moist growth at the umbilicus after the umbilical cord detaches. - Its characteristic appearance, resembling a small red berry, has led to the descriptive term "**raspberry tumor**." *Umbilical fistula* - An **umbilical fistula** is an abnormal connection that can occur between the intestine or bladder and the umbilicus, leading to the discharge of stool or urine from the umbilicus. - It does not present as a fleshy, raspberry-like growth, but rather as an opening with discharge. *Meckel’s diverticulum* - **Meckel's diverticulum** is a remnant of the **vitelline duct**, typically found on the anti-mesenteric border of the ileum, and is a congenital anomaly of the small intestine. - It is an internal structure and does not manifest externally at the umbilicus as a "raspberry tumor." *Umbilical adenoma* - An **umbilical adenoma** is a rare tumor of the umbilicus, often a remnant of the **vitelline duct** or **urachus**, which can present as a reddish mass. - While it can be a reddish mass, the specific term "raspberry tumor" is not commonly associated with umbilical adenoma but rather with umbilical granuloma due to its very distinct granular appearance.

Q: Diversion of urine is best done at

Ileum. ***Ileum*** - The **ileum** is the most commonly used segment for urinary diversion due to its **mobility**, adequate vascular supply, and low complication rates. - Its relatively **low absorptive capacity** for electrolytes, particularly urea and ammonia, minimizes metabolic disturbances. *Jejunum* - The **jejunum** has a high absorptive capacity, which can lead to significant **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis) when urine is diverted into it. - It is also more prone to **stomal stenosis** and bowel obstruction compared to the ileum. *Colon* - While the colon can be used, particularly in continent diversions, it has a **thicker wall** and can be less mobile, making surgical creation of a conduit more challenging. - Similar to the jejunum, it has a **higher absorptive capacity** than the ileum, which can lead to electrolyte disturbances. *Caecum* - The **caecum** is a possible site for continent urinary diversions (e.g., cecal pouch), but it is not typically used for simple incontinent conduits due to its **anatomical position** and surgical complexity. - Its use often requires additional procedures to ensure continence and prevent reflux.

Q: Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:

CO2. ***CO2*** - **Carbon dioxide** is rapidly absorbed and expelled by the respiratory system, minimizing the risk of **gas embolism**. - It is **non-flammable**, which is crucial in a surgical environment where electrosurgical devices are often used. - CO2 is **highly soluble in blood**, allowing rapid clearance if venous absorption occurs. *N2* - **Nitrogen** is not ideal for pneumoperitoneum as its poor solubility in blood leads to a significant risk of **gas embolism**. - **Increased nitrogen pockets** can create complications that make it a poor choice. *O2* - **Oxygen** poses a significant **fire hazard** in the presence of electrosurgical instruments. - It **supports combustion**, making the surgical field dangerous when using electrocautery or laser devices. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide** supports **combustion**, making it unsafe for use with electrosurgical devices. - It can also diffuse into **bowel loops**, causing distension and obstructing visibility, which is undesirable during laparoscopy.

Q: Most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:

Bochdalek hernia. ***Bochdalek hernia*** - This is the most common type of **congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)**, accounting for approximately **95% of all CDH cases**. - It occurs due to a defect in the **posterolateral diaphragm** (pleuroperitoneal membrane), typically on the **left side**. - Presents in neonates with respiratory distress due to herniation of abdominal contents into the thorax. *Morgagni hernia* - This is a rare type of **congenital diaphragmatic hernia**, occurring through the **anterior retrosternal diaphragm** (foramen of Morgagni). - Accounts for only **2-5% of all CDH cases**, usually on the right side. - Often asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally in adults. *Paraesophageal hernia* - This is an **acquired hiatal hernia** where part of the stomach herniates alongside the esophagus through the esophageal hiatus. - While **hiatal hernias are the most common diaphragmatic hernias overall**, they are **not congenital** and therefore not the answer to this question. - Seen commonly in older adults. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as **Bochdalek hernia** is definitively the most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?

Breast self examination. ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.

Question 1

What is the standard intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy?

Accepted Answer

9th

Answer

5th

Answer

7th

Answer

11th

Question 2

Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:

Accepted Answer

Airway management

Answer

Management of shock

Answer

Splinting of limbs

Answer

Cervical spine protection

Question 3

What type of burn is characterized by flash burn, tenderness, redness, and pain?

Accepted Answer

First degree burn

Answer

Scalded burn

Answer

Second degree burn

Answer

Fourth degree burn

Question 4

Which muscle flap is commonly used for autologous breast reconstruction after mastectomy?

Accepted Answer

Latissimus dorsi

Answer

Deltopectoral

Answer

Serratus anterior

Answer

Trapezius

Question 5

The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Umbilical granuloma

Answer

Umbilical fistula

Answer

Meckel’s diverticulum

Answer

Umbilical adenoma

Question 6

Diversion of urine is best done at

Accepted Answer

Ileum

Answer

Jejunum

Answer

Colon

Answer

Caecum

Question 7

Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:

Accepted Answer

CO2

Answer

N2

Answer

N2O

Answer

O2

Question 8

Most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:

Accepted Answer

Bochdalek hernia

Answer

Morgagni hernia

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Paraesophageal hernia

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?

Accepted Answer

Breast self examination

Answer

USG/ mammography

Answer

Clinical examination

Answer

FNAC/ trucut biopsy

Question 10

In the initial management of a hemodynamically unstable polytrauma patient, what is the recommended initial crystalloid bolus dose of Ringer's lactate for assessment and stabilization?

Accepted Answer

1000 ml Ringer's lactate bolus, then regulated by clinical indicators

Answer

2000 ml Ringer's lactate bolus

Answer

250 ml Ringer's lactate bolus

Answer

500 ml Ringer's lactate bolus, then regulated by clinical indicators

NEET-PG 2012 — Surgery