NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: A patient presents with fever and dysphagia. An image shows a tonsil that is pushed medially. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Peritonsillar abscess. ***Peritonsillar abscess*** - The image clearly shows **unilateral bulging** of the soft palate and displacement of the tonsil medially, consistent with a peritonsillar abscess. - Patients typically present with **fever**, **dysphagia**, severe sore throat, and a "hot potato" voice. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A parapharyngeal abscess involves the **deep neck spaces** lateral to the pharynx, often presenting with neck swelling, trismus, and systemic symptoms. - While it can cause pharyngeal bulging, the classic **medial displacement of the tonsil** is more indicative of a peritonsillar abscess. *Retropharyngeal abscess* - This involves the space behind the posterior pharyngeal wall, usually presenting with **dysphagia**, **neck stiffness**, and fever. - Imaging would reveal a **prevertebral soft tissue swelling**, not primarily a medially displaced tonsil. *Ludwig's angina* - Ludwig's angina is a **rapidly spreading cellulitis** of the submandibular and sublingual spaces, typically arising from an odontogenic infection. - It presents with **woody induration** of the neck and floor of the mouth, elevation of the tongue, and potential airway compromise, but not primarily a medially displaced tonsil.

Q: A Patient falls down often with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the condition associated with him?

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). ***Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)*** - NPH is characterized by the classic triad of symptoms: **gait disturbance** (leading to falls), **dementia/behavioral changes**, and **urinary incontinence** (enuresis) [1]. - These symptoms arise from the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain's ventricles without a corresponding increase in intracranial pressure [2]. *Parkinson's disease (PD)* - While PD causes **gait instability** and falls, its primary symptoms include **bradykinesia**, **rigidity**, and **resting tremor**, which are not mentioned. - Behavioral changes can occur later in the disease, but **enuresis** is not a hallmark symptom. *Alzheimer's disease (AD)* - AD primarily presents with **progressive memory loss** and cognitive decline, not gait disturbances or enuresis as early or prominent features. - Falls usually occur much later due to advanced cognitive impairment and not as an initial triad component. *Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)* - FTD is characterized by early and prominent **behavioral and personality changes** or language difficulties. - While falls can occur due to executive dysfunction, **gait disturbance** and **enuresis** as part of a triad are not typical presenting features.

Q: In trochlear palsy, which specific eye movement is lost?

Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye. ***Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye*** - Trochlear palsy affects the **superior oblique muscle**, which is primarily responsible for **downward gaze** and **intorsion** (inward rotation) of the eye, particularly when the eye is adducted. - Patients often present with **vertical diplopia** and a **head tilt** away from the affected side to compensate for the eye misalignment. *Upward gaze* - Upward gaze is primarily mediated by the **superior rectus muscle** (innervated by the oculomotor nerve) and the **inferior oblique muscle** (also oculomotor nerve). - Trochlear nerve palsy does not directly impair the muscles responsible for moving the eye upwards. *Lateral movement of the eye* - **Lateral movement** (abduction) of the eye is controlled by the **lateral rectus muscle**, which is innervated by the **abducens nerve (CN VI)**. - A loss of lateral movement would indicate an abducens nerve palsy, not a trochlear nerve palsy. *Facial expressions* - **Facial expressions** are controlled by the muscles of facial expression, which are innervated by the **facial nerve (CN VII)**. - This is unrelated to the cranial nerves involved in eye movement.

Q: A female patient has been on lithium for bipolar disorder for 6 months. After fasting for several days due to religious reasons, she presents with seizures, tremors, confusion, and weakness. What is the most appropriate investigation to diagnose her condition?

Serum lithium levels. **Serum lithium levels** - The patient's symptoms (seizures, tremors, confusion, weakness) are classic for **lithium toxicity**. - **Fasting** can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can increase lithium concentrations and toxicity [1]. *Serum electrolytes* - While **electrolyte imbalances** can occur with fasting and contribute to symptoms, measuring serum electrolytes alone will not directly diagnose lithium toxicity. - Electrolyte disturbances might be a predisposing factor or a concomitant issue, but not the primary diagnostic test for lithium toxicity itself [1]. *ECG* - An **ECG** can reveal cardiac effects of lithium toxicity, such as T-wave flattening or inversion, but it is not the most appropriate direct diagnostic test for the condition itself. - ECG changes are secondary manifestations and may not always be present or specific. *MRI* - While an **MRI** of the brain might be considered to rule out other causes of neurological symptoms like a stroke or brain lesion, it is not the initial or most appropriate investigation for suspected lithium toxicity. - The clinical picture strongly points to a pharmacological cause, making laboratory tests more relevant first-line diagnostics than imaging.

Q: What is the best treatment option for a septate uterus?

Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum. ***Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum*** - This procedure involves using a **hysteroscope** to visualize and resect the **fibrous or muscular septum** that divides the uterine cavity, restoring a normal uterine shape. - It is considered the gold standard due to its **minimally invasive nature**, effectiveness in improving reproductive outcomes, and lower risk of complications compared to abdominal approaches. *Tompkins Metroplasty* - This is an **abdominal surgical procedure** primarily used for the repair of a **bicornuate uterus**, not typically for a septate uterus. - It involves resecting the uterine fundus to create a single uterine cavity, which is more invasive than hysteroscopic septum resection. *Jones metroplasty* - This procedure is also an **abdominal approach** used for the surgical correction of a **bicornuate uterus**, not a septate uterus. - It involves excising the septal portion and approximating the uterine walls. *Strassmann metroplasty* - This is another **abdominal surgical technique** that is primarily indicated for the repair of a **bicornuate or didelphys uterus**, where a large defect needs to be corrected. - It involves reconstructing the uterus through a fundal incision, which is significantly more invasive than hysteroscopic septal resection for a septate uterus.

Q: What will be the Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) finding?

Hydrosalpinx. ***Hydrosalpinx*** - The image, likely a hysterosalpingogram (HSG), shows a **dilated and fluid-filled fallopian tube** with no spillage of contrast into the peritoneal cavity, which is characteristic of hydrosalpinx. - The **contrast media fills the tubal lumen** but is unable to egress, indicating distal tubal obstruction and fluid accumulation. *Cornual block* - A cornual block would present as **obstruction at the uterine ostium** of the fallopian tube, preventing contrast from entering the tubal lumen. - In this image, contrast has clearly entered and dilated the fallopian tube, ruling out a cornual block. *Normal findings* - Normal HSG findings would show **patent fallopian tubes** with free spill of contrast into the peritoneal cavity. - The visible **dilation** and **lack of spill** in the image are distinctly abnormal. *Bicornuate uterus* - A bicornuate uterus is a **congenital uterine anomaly** characterized by two separate uterine horns. - While the uterus appears somewhat irregular, the dominant feature is the dilated fallopian tube, which is not a hallmark of a bicornuate uterus.

Q: What is the most serious complication of measles?

Pneumonia. ***Pneumonia*** - **Pneumonia**, particularly **giant cell pneumonia**, is the most common cause of **measles-related deaths** in young children. - It results from the **direct viral infection** of the lungs or a **secondary bacterial superinfection**. *Croup* - **Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)** can be a complication of measles, but it is typically **less severe** and **less life-threatening** than pneumonia. - It primarily affects the **upper airways**, causing a barking cough and stridor. *Meningo-encephalitis* - **Meningo-encephalitis** is a serious, albeit **less common**, complication of measles, occurring in approximately 1 in 1,000 cases. - While potentially fatal or leading to neurological sequelae, it is **outranked by pneumonia** in terms of overall mortality attributed to measles. *Otitis media* - **Otitis media** (middle ear infection) is a common complication of measles, but it is generally **not life-threatening**. - It usually responds well to **antibiotic treatment** and rarely leads to severe outcomes.

Q: A patient on lithium therapy developed hypertension and was started on a thiazide diuretic. After a few days, he developed coarse tremors and other symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity. What is the probable mechanism of interaction between thiazide diuretics and lithium?

Thiazide increases the tubular reabsorption of lithium. ***Thiazide increases the tubular reabsorption of lithium*** - Thiazide diuretics cause a decrease in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased sodium excretion in urine. - The kidneys, in an attempt to conserve sodium, increase reabsorption in the proximal tubule. Because **lithium** is reabsorbed similarly to sodium in the proximal tubule, this increased reabsorption also affects lithium, leading to a rise in its plasma concentration and toxicity. *Thiazide inhibits the metabolism of lithium* - Lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys and is not significantly metabolized in the body. - Thiazide diuretics do not affect enzyme systems responsible for drug metabolism. *Thiazides act as an add on the drug to lithium* - This statement is vague and does not explain a mechanism of interaction leading to toxicity. - While both drugs might be prescribed concurrently for different conditions, "add on" does not describe a pharmacological interaction causing altered drug levels. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because a clear and well-understood mechanism for the interaction between thiazide diuretics and lithium exists.

Q: Among the following, prolactin secretion is maximum:

24 hrs after delivery. ***Correct: 24 hrs after delivery*** - Prolactin levels are highest in the initial **24 hours postpartum**, especially during and after **breastfeeding sessions**, which act as a powerful stimulus for prolactin release. - This peak prolactin level is crucial for initiating and maintaining **lactation** following childbirth. - The postpartum prolactin surge represents the **maximum physiological level** of this hormone under normal circumstances. *Incorrect: During REM sleep* - While prolactin secretion does exhibit a **circadian rhythm** with nocturnal peaks, the highest levels do not specifically occur during **REM sleep**; rather, they are elevated throughout the sleep cycle. - Though prolactin does rise during sleep, the magnitudes are **not comparable** to the surges seen postpartum or after intense suckling. *Incorrect: After 2 hours of running* - Exercise, particularly prolonged and intense physical activity, can cause a transient increase in prolactin levels due to **stress response** and hormonal changes. - However, this exercise-induced increase is generally **modest** compared to the physiological surge observed after delivery. *Incorrect: 24 hours after ovulation* - Prolactin levels show a slight increase during the **luteal phase** of the menstrual cycle, which follows ovulation, primarily due to rising progesterone levels. - This elevation is significantly **lower** than the dramatic rise seen immediately postpartum needed for milk production.

Q: The chest radiograph shown below is from a 25-year-old male patient presenting with hypertension. The image demonstrates bilateral inferior rib notching. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Coarctation of Aorta. ***Coarctation of Aorta*** - The chest radiograph shows findings consistent with **rib notching**, which is a classic sign of coarctation of the aorta due to increased collateral circulation through intercostal arteries. - The history of **hypertension** in a male patient, especially if presenting at a younger age or with differential blood pressures between upper and lower extremities, strongly suggests coarctation of the aorta. *Tetralogy of Fallot* - Characterized by a **boot-shaped heart** due to right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary outflow obstruction. - Would typically present with **cyanosis** and decreased pulmonary vascular markings, not rib notching or isolated hypertension. *Ebstein's Anomaly* - Involves apical displacement of the **tricuspid valve**, leading to atrialization of the right ventricle and severe tricuspid regurgitation. - Chest X-rays often show **severe cardiomegaly** (huge heart due to right atrial enlargement) and decreased pulmonary vascularity, which are not depicted here. *TAPVC* - Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) involves all pulmonary veins draining into the systemic circulation. - The classic chest X-ray finding for supracardiac TAPVC is a **"snowman" or "figure of 8" sign** due to dilated anomalous vessels and superior vena cava, which is absent in this image.

Question 1

A patient presents with fever and dysphagia. An image shows a tonsil that is pushed medially. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Peritonsillar abscess

Answer

Parapharyngeal abscess

Answer

Retropharyngeal abscess

Answer

Ludwig's angina

Question 2

A Patient falls down often with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the condition associated with him?

Accepted Answer

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

Answer

Parkinson's disease (PD)

Answer

Alzheimer's disease (AD)

Answer

Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

Question 3

In trochlear palsy, which specific eye movement is lost?

Accepted Answer

Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye

Answer

Upward gaze

Answer

Lateral movement of the eye

Answer

Facial expressions

Question 4

A female patient has been on lithium for bipolar disorder for 6 months. After fasting for several days due to religious reasons, she presents with seizures, tremors, confusion, and weakness. What is the most appropriate investigation to diagnose her condition?

Accepted Answer

Serum lithium levels

Answer

Serum electrolytes

Answer

ECG

Answer

MRI

Question 5

What is the best treatment option for a septate uterus?

Accepted Answer

Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum

Answer

Tompkins Metroplasty

Answer

Jones metroplasty

Answer

Strassmann metroplasty

Question 6

What will be the Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) finding?

Accepted Answer

Hydrosalpinx

Answer

Cornual block

Answer

Normal findings

Answer

Bicornuate uterus

Question 7

What is the most serious complication of measles?

Accepted Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Croup

Answer

Otitis media

Answer

Meningo-encephalitis

Question 8

A patient on lithium therapy developed hypertension and was started on a thiazide diuretic. After a few days, he developed coarse tremors and other symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity. What is the probable mechanism of interaction between thiazide diuretics and lithium?

Accepted Answer

Thiazide increases the tubular reabsorption of lithium

Answer

Thiazide inhibits the metabolism of lithium

Answer

Thiazides act as an add-on drug to lithium

Answer

None of the above

Question 9

Among the following, prolactin secretion is maximum:

Accepted Answer

24 hrs after delivery

Answer

During REM sleep

Answer

After 2 hours of running

Answer

24 hours after ovulation

Question 10

The chest radiograph shown below is from a 25-year-old male patient presenting with hypertension. The image demonstrates bilateral inferior rib notching. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Coarctation of Aorta

Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer

Ebstein's Anomaly

Answer

TAPVC

NEET-PG 2020

ENT

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Radiology