NEET-PG 2013 — Physiology
95 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Conversion of chondrocytes into osteogenic cells is caused by
The temperature centre is?
Which of the following best describes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction?
Which of the following statements about breathing is incorrect?
What is the air remaining in the lung after normal expiration?
Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to which of the following changes in blood?
What does Boyle's Law state?
What is the minimum fluid urine output for neutral solute balance?
Fever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?
Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Conversion of chondrocytes into osteogenic cells is caused by
- A. Insulin
- B. Thyroxine
- C. Growth hormone
- D. IGF-1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***IGF-1*** - **Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1)** is the primary direct mediator in endochondral ossification, stimulating chondrocyte proliferation, differentiation, and hypertrophy in the growth plate. - IGF-1 acts directly on chondrocytes to promote their maturation and the subsequent invasion of osteoprogenitor cells that form bone. - It plays a crucial role in longitudinal bone growth by regulating various cellular processes in the growth plate and promoting the replacement of cartilage with bone tissue. *Insulin* - While insulin has anabolic effects on bone and can interact with IGF-1 receptors due to structural similarity, its primary role is in **glucose metabolism** rather than direct regulation of chondrocyte activity in endochondral ossification. - Insulin may have supportive effects on bone formation but is not the primary hormone driving growth plate chondrocyte function. *Growth hormone* - **Growth hormone (GH)** stimulates the production of IGF-1 both systemically (from the liver) and locally (from chondrocytes and other skeletal tissues). - GH acts upstream by increasing IGF-1 levels, which then directly mediates the effects on chondrocytes. - While GH is essential for normal bone growth, IGF-1 is considered the direct effector molecule on chondrocytes. *Thyroxine* - **Thyroxine (T4)** is essential for normal skeletal development and bone maturation, particularly in regulating the timing of growth plate fusion and overall metabolic support for bone growth. - However, it does not directly regulate chondrocyte proliferation and differentiation in the growth plate during endochondral ossification. - Thyroid hormone deficiency causes growth retardation, but thyroxine is not the primary hormonal driver of chondrocyte activity.
Question 2: The temperature centre is?
- A. Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus
- B. Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus
- C. Preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus (Correct Answer)
- D. Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus
Explanation: **Preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus** - The **preoptic nucleus** within the **hypothalamus** serves as the primary **thermoregulatory center** in the brain. - It contains both **heat-sensitive** and **cold-sensitive neurons** that monitor core body temperature and initiate appropriate responses to maintain homeostasis. *Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus* - The **supraoptic nucleus** is primarily involved in the production of **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)**, which regulates water balance. - It plays a crucial role in **fluid and electrolyte balance**, not temperature regulation. *Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus* - The **paraventricular nucleus** is multifunctional, producing **oxytocin** and **vasopressin** (ADH), and is involved in stress response and feeding. - While it has broad regulatory roles, it is not the primary center for **temperature control**. *Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus* - The **suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)** is the body's main **circadian clock**, regulating daily rhythms like the sleep-wake cycle. - Its primary function is to synchronize biological activities with the **24-hour light-dark cycle**, not directly control body temperature.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction?
- A. Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia (Correct Answer)
- B. Irreversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
- C. Redirects blood to well-ventilated areas
- D. Occurs immediately in response to hypoxia
Explanation: ***Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia*** - Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) is a physiological response in which **pulmonary arterioles constrict** in areas of the lung with low oxygen levels. - This mechanism is **reversible**, meaning that when oxygen levels improve, the constricted vessels will dilate again. - The underlying mechanism involves hypoxia-induced inhibition of voltage-gated K⁺ channels in pulmonary arterial smooth muscle, leading to membrane depolarization, Ca²⁺ influx, and smooth muscle contraction. *Irreversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia* - This statement is incorrect because HPV is fundamentally a **reversible process**, designed to adapt to transient changes in alveolar oxygen. - Irreversible vasoconstriction typically occurs in chronic hypoxia, leading to **pulmonary hypertension** and structural remodeling (vascular remodeling with medial hypertrophy), which is a pathological state rather than the acute physiological response of HPV. *Redirects blood to well-ventilated areas* - While this is the **physiological purpose** and overall effect of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction, it describes the functional outcome rather than what HPV fundamentally is. - The redirection of blood flow is the **consequence** of vasoconstriction in hypoxic areas, which optimizes ventilation-perfusion matching. *Occurs immediately in response to hypoxia* - While HPV does begin rapidly in response to hypoxia (within seconds to minutes), this describes the **timing characteristic** rather than what HPV is. - This statement is also somewhat imprecise, as the response involves intracellular signaling pathways that take time to manifest fully, though the onset is relatively quick compared to other vascular responses.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about breathing is incorrect?
- A. Inspiration is an active process
- B. Normal breathing occurs when transpulmonary pressure is 5-8 cm H2O (Correct Answer)
- C. Expiration during quiet breathing is passive
- D. Compliance is influenced by multiple factors including surfactant.
Explanation: ***Normal breathing occurs when transpulmonary pressure is 5-8 cm H2O*** - This statement is **incorrect** because it misrepresents transpulmonary pressure during normal breathing. - Normal **transpulmonary pressure** during quiet breathing typically ranges from approximately **3-6 cm H2O** during inspiration, with an average of about **5 cm H2O** at functional residual capacity. - The range "5-8 cm H2O" is too high for normal quiet breathing. While transpulmonary pressure can reach 8 cm H2O during deeper inspiration, stating this as the range for "normal breathing" is inaccurate. - Transpulmonary pressure is the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure (P_L = P_alv - P_pl), which drives lung inflation. *Expiration during quiet breathing is passive* - During quiet breathing, **expiration is a passive process** driven by the **elastic recoil of the lungs** and chest wall. - No active muscular contraction is required for air to leave the lungs during unforced expiration. *Inspiration is an active process* - **Inspiration is an active process** requiring muscular contraction, primarily of the **diaphragm and external intercostal muscles**. - These muscles contract to increase the thoracic volume, which decreases intrapleural and alveolar pressures, drawing air into the lungs. *Compliance is influenced by multiple factors including surfactant* - **Lung compliance**, a measure of the lung's distensibility, is significantly influenced by **surfactant**. - Surfactant reduces **surface tension** in the alveoli, preventing their collapse and increasing compliance.
Question 5: What is the air remaining in the lung after normal expiration?
- A. Tidal Volume (TV)
- B. Residual Volume (RV)
- C. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) (Correct Answer)
- D. Vital Capacity (VC)
Explanation: ***Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)*** - **FRC** represents the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a **normal expiration**. - It is the sum of the **expiratory reserve volume (ERV)** and the **residual volume (RV)**. *Tidal Volume (TV)* - **TV** is the volume of air inspired or expired with a **normal breath**. - It does not represent the total air remaining in the lungs after expiration. *Residual Volume (RV)* - **RV** is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a **maximal expiration**. - It is a component of FRC but does not fully describe the air remaining after a *normal* expiration. *Vital Capacity (VC)* - **VC** is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a **maximal inspiration**. - It represents the maximum amount of air that can be exchanged with a single breath, not the air remaining after normal expiration.
Question 6: Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to which of the following changes in blood?
- A. PO2
- B. HCO3-
- C. pH
- D. PCO2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***PCO2*** - Central chemoreceptors, located in the **medulla oblongata**, are exquisitely sensitive to changes in the **partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2)** in the arterial blood. - An increase in blood PCO2 readily crosses the **blood-brain barrier** to the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), where it is converted to carbonic acid and then to H+ and HCO3-. The resulting **drop in CSF pH** directly stimulates these chemoreceptors, leading to increased ventilation. *PO2* - While **peripheral chemoreceptors** (carotid and aortic bodies) are sensitive to changes in **PO2**, particularly when it drops significantly (below 60 mmHg), central chemoreceptors are not. - The primary role of central chemoreceptors is to monitor and respond to changes in CO2 and pH, rather than oxygen levels. *pH* - Central chemoreceptors are indirectly sensitive to **pH changes** in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which result from blood PCO2 changes. - However, they are not directly or primarily sensitive to changes in **blood pH** because hydrogen ions do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier. *HCO3-* - Bicarbonate ions (**HCO3-**) are important in buffering pH, but central chemoreceptors do not directly sense bicarbonate levels. - Changes in HCO3- indirectly affect pH, and it is the resultant **H+ concentration** in the CSF, derived from CO2, that primarily stimulates central chemoreceptors.
Question 7: What does Boyle's Law state?
- A. Pressure divided by temperature is constant.
- B. Volume divided by temperature is constant.
- C. PV = constant (Correct Answer)
- D. Pressure multiplied by volume equals the number of moles times the gas constant times temperature.
Explanation: ***PV = constant*** - **Boyle's Law** states that at constant temperature, the pressure and volume of a gas are inversely proportional. - Mathematically expressed as **PV = constant** or **P₁V₁ = P₂V₂** - This means that if the volume of a gas decreases, its pressure increases proportionally, and vice versa. - **Clinically relevant** in understanding lung mechanics during respiration - as thoracic volume increases during inspiration, intrapulmonary pressure decreases, allowing air to flow in. *Pressure divided by temperature is constant.* - This describes **Gay-Lussac's Law** (P/T = constant), which relates pressure and temperature at constant volume. - Shows the direct relationship between pressure and temperature. *Volume divided by temperature is constant.* - This statement describes **Charles's Law** (V/T = constant), which relates the volume and temperature of a gas at constant pressure. - Indicates a direct relationship between volume and temperature. *Pressure multiplied by volume equals the number of moles times the gas constant times temperature.* - This represents the **Ideal Gas Law**: PV = nRT - Combines Boyle's, Charles's, and Avogadro's laws to relate pressure, volume, temperature, and the number of moles of a gas.
Question 8: What is the minimum fluid urine output for neutral solute balance?
- A. 300 ml
- B. 750 ml
- C. 500 ml
- D. 400 ml (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***400 ml*** - The kidneys must excrete approximately **600 mOsm of solutes daily** to maintain neutral solute balance. - With a maximum urine concentrating ability of **1200-1400 mOsm/L**, the minimum volume required is calculated as: 600 mOsm ÷ 1400 mOsm/L = **428 ml**. - Therefore, **400 ml** is the conventionally accepted minimum urine output for neutral solute balance. - Below this volume, even with maximal concentration, solute excretion would be inadequate. *300 ml* - **300 ml** would be insufficient to excrete the 600 mOsm daily solute load even at maximal concentration (300 × 1400 = 420 mOsm only). - This volume would lead to accumulation of solutes and **azotemia** (elevated BUN and creatinine). *500 ml* - While **500 ml** would certainly be adequate for solute excretion, it exceeds the calculated minimum of ~428 ml. - The question asks for the *minimum* volume, making **400 ml** the more precise answer according to standard textbooks. *750 ml* - **750 ml** is well above the minimum required for neutral solute balance. - This volume represents normal physiological urine output but is not the minimum threshold for maintaining solute balance.
Question 9: Fever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?
- A. 100 ml/day
- B. 200 ml/day (Correct Answer)
- C. 400 ml/day
- D. 800 ml/day
Explanation: ***200 ml/day*** - For every 1-degree Celsius (or 1.8-degree Fahrenheit) increase in body temperature, there is an approximate **200 ml increase in insensible water loss** per day due to increased metabolism and sweating. - This value highlights the importance of **adequate fluid replacement** in febrile patients to prevent dehydration. *100 ml/day* - This value is **insufficient** to account for the increased insensible fluid losses associated with fever. - Using this estimate could lead to **underestimation of fluid requirements** and potential dehydration in febrile patients. *400 ml/day* - This value is **higher than the typical estimated increase** in water loss per degree Celsius of fever. - While extreme fever might cause higher losses, 200 ml/day is the standard clinical approximation for a 1-degree rise. *800 ml/day* - This value represents a **significant overestimation** of the fluid loss per degree Celsius increase in fever. - Such a high estimate would generally be seen only in very severe conditions or with much larger temperature increases.
Question 10: Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
- A. 25 L/min
- B. 50 L/min
- C. 100 L/min
- D. 150 L/min (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***150 L/min*** - The **Maximum Voluntary Ventilation (MVV)** represents the largest volume of air that can be breathed in and out using maximal effort over a 10-15 second period. - While it varies among individuals, a typical average value for a healthy adult is approximately **150-170 L/min**. *25 L/min* - This value is significantly lower than the typical MVV; 25 L/min is closer to a normal **resting minute ventilation** (tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate). - Resting minute ventilation reflects the volume of air exchanged at rest, not the maximum capacity. *50 L/min* - This value is still considerably lower than the average MVV and does not represent the maximum capacity of the respiratory system. - It might be seen in individuals with **severe pulmonary impairment** or at a very high resting metabolic rate. *100 L/min* - While higher than resting values, 100 L/min is generally below the average maximum voluntary ventilation for a healthy adult. - It could represent a MVV in individuals with **mild to moderate respiratory compromise** or less effort during the test.