NEET-PG 2013 - Ophthalmology Practice Questions

Q: Cicatrising trachoma is associated with which stage of the disease?

Stage-3. ***Stage-3*** - **Cicatrising trachoma** corresponds to Stage 3 of the WHO classification for trachoma, characterized by scarring of the conjunctiva. - This stage is marked by the presence of **conjunctival scarring (TS)**, which can lead to further complications. *Stage-1* - Stage 1 is characterized by **trachomatous inflammation, follicular (TF)**, indicating active infection with follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva. - It represents the initial, active inflammatory phase and does not involve scarring. *Stage-2* - Stage 2 is characterized by **trachomatous inflammation, intense (TI)**, where there is pronounced inflammation that obscures blood vessels. - While intense inflammation is present, significant scarring has not yet developed at this stage, differentiating it from cicatrising trachoma. *Stage-4* - Stage 4 is characterized by **trachomatous trichiasis (TT)**, where the eyelashes turn inward and rub against the cornea. - This stage is a direct complication of the scarring from Stage 3, leading to corneal damage, rather than the cicatrising stage itself.

Q: Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is primarily associated with hypersensitivity to which of the following?

Staphylococcus. ***Staphylococcus*** - **Phlyctenular conjunctivitis** is characterized by delayed (Type IV) hypersensitivity reactions to bacterial antigens, most commonly from **Staphylococcus aureus**. - This condition often presents with small, nodular lesions (phlyctenules) on the conjunctiva or cornea, which are essentially collections of inflammatory cells responding to bacterial proteins. - **Important note**: **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** is another well-documented cause of phlyctenular conjunctivitis, particularly in TB-endemic regions, and should be considered in the differential diagnosis. - Other triggers include protein antigens from organisms colonizing the ocular surface. *Chlamydia* - While **Chlamydia trachomatis** can cause chronic conjunctivitis (e.g., trachoma, adult inclusion conjunctivitis), it does not typically lead to the distinct nodular lesions seen in phlyctenular conjunctivitis. - Ocular chlamydial infections are primarily characterized by follicular conjunctivitis and pannus formation. *Pneumococcus* - **Streptococcus pneumoniae** (Pneumococcus) is a common cause of acute bacterial conjunctivitis, characterized by purulent discharge and redness. - However, it is not associated with the specific delayed hypersensitivity reaction that defines phlyctenular conjunctivitis. *Aspergillus* - **Aspergillus** species are fungi and are more commonly implicated in fungal keratitis or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - Fungal infections of the conjunctiva are rare and do not typically manifest as phlyctenular conjunctivitis.

Q: Van Herick angle grade '3' of anterior chamber denotes

Moderately open angle. ***Moderately open angle*** - A **Von Herick angle grade 3** indicates that the width of the peripheral anterior chamber is approximately **one-quarter to one-half** the thickness of the peripheral cornea. - This assessment suggests a **moderately open anterior chamber angle**, indicating that while there is some risk of angle closure, it is not immediately narrow. *Wide open angle* - A **wide open angle** is typically represented by a **Von Herick grade 4**, where the anterior chamber angle is as wide or wider than the corneal thickness. - This grade signifies a **low risk of angle closure** and good aqueous outflow. *Narrow angle* - A **narrow angle** is generally associated with **Von Herick grades 1 or 2**, where the anterior chamber is significantly shallower. - Grade 1 indicates an angle width of **less than one-quarter** of peripheral corneal thickness, posing a higher risk of angle closure. *Closed angle* - A **closed angle** represents an extreme case where the **iris is in contact with the trabecular meshwork**, blocking aqueous outflow. - This condition is not typically graded in the Von Herick system as an existent angle, but rather as an absence of a visible angle (grade 0 or **"slit"**).

Q: What is the most common symptom associated with congenital glaucoma?

Excessive tearing. ***Excessive tearing*** - **Epiphora**, or excessive tearing, is one of the most common early symptoms of **congenital glaucoma** in infants. - This symptom occurs due to **corneal irritation** and **damage** resulting from elevated intraocular pressure. *Eye pain* - While glaucoma can cause eye pain, it is less commonly reported as the *initial* and *most frequent* symptom in **congenital glaucoma** in infants who cannot verbalize their discomfort. - **Irritability** or excessive crying might be indirect signs of pain, but tearing is a more direct and observable sign. *Sensitivity to light* - **Photophobia**, or sensitivity to light, is another common symptom of congenital glaucoma. - However, **excessive tearing** often precedes or co-occurs with photophobia as an initial presenting symptom in infants. *Itching of the eyes* - **Ocular itching** is typically associated with **allergic conjunctivitis** or other inflammatory conditions, not directly with congenital glaucoma. - Itching is not a primary or common symptom of elevated intraocular pressure in infants.

Q: What are the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome?

Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis. ***Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis*** - Posner-Schlossman syndrome, also known as **glaucomatocyclitic crisis**, is characterized by recurrent, acute attacks of **unilateral elevated intraocular pressure** (glaucomatous changes). - These attacks are accompanied by **mild anterior uveitis**, which typically presents with few or no precipitates and minimal redness. *Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema* - This constellation of symptoms, known as **Foster Kennedy syndrome**, is associated with intracranial masses, not Posner-Schlossman syndrome. - It involves **optic atrophy** in one eye due to direct pressure on the optic nerve and **papilledema** in the other eye due to increased intracranial pressure. *Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia* - **Granulomatous uveitis** is characterized by large mutton-fat keratic precipitates and often seen in diseases like sarcoidosis or tuberculosis, which is not typical for Posner-Schlossman. - **Iris heterochromia** (different colored irises) is a characteristic feature of **Fuchs' heterochromic cyclitis**, another form of chronic anterior uveitis, but not Posner-Schlossman syndrome. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as one of the provided choices accurately describes the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome. - The other options describe different ophthalmological conditions.

Q: What is the first-line treatment for acute angle closure glaucoma?

Acetazolamide. **Acetazolamide** - **Acetazolamide** (oral or intravenous) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that rapidly reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous humor production, making it the **first-line medical treatment** for acute angle-closure glaucoma. - While other agents are used, acetazolamide provides the quickest and most significant initial reduction in **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, which is crucial in preventing permanent vision loss. *IV mannitol* - **Intravenous mannitol** is an osmotic diuretic used to draw fluid from the vitreous humor to lower **IOP** significantly, but it is typically reserved for cases where **acetazolamide** alone is insufficient or for very high **IOPs**. - It is often considered a second-line or adjunctive agent rather than the initial first-line treatment. *Pilocarpine* - **Pilocarpine** is a miotic agent that constricts the pupil, which helps to pull the iris away from the trabecular meshwork and open the angle. - However, it should only be administered *after* the **intraocular pressure** has been significantly lowered (e.g., with acetazolamide), as it can worsen angle closure in an inflamed eye with very high **IOP**. *Beta blocker eyedrops* - **Topical beta-blockers** (e.g., timolol) reduce **IOP** by decreasing aqueous humor production and are a common treatment for various types of glaucoma. - While useful in acute angle-closure glaucoma, they act more slowly than **acetazolamide** and are typically used as an adjunct rather than the sole initial first-line treatment.

Q: Which Goldmann type is considered the standard in perimetry?

Goldmann type III (commonly used stimulus size). ***Goldmann type III (commonly used stimulus size)*** - This stimulus size is the **international standard** for kinetic perimetry and ensures comparability of visual field charts worldwide. - It provides a balance between **sensitivity** and minimizing the effects of **pupil size** and other ocular factors. *Goldmann type I (small stimulus size)* - While very small, this stimulus type is **not the standard** for general perimetry. - It is sometimes used for detecting **subtle defects** or for patients with very good visual acuity, but its small size can make it harder to detect. *Goldmann type II (medium-small stimulus size)* - This stimulus size is **smaller than the standard** and is not universally adopted for perimetry. - It offers slightly more sensitivity than the standard but can be more affected by **refractive errors** or media opacities. *Goldmann type IV (large stimulus size)* - This stimulus is **much larger than the standard** and is typically used for detecting **gross defects** or in patients with severely impaired vision. - Its large size makes it **less sensitive** to smaller visual field abnormalities.

Q: Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma:

Latanoprost. ***Latanoprost*** - **Prostaglandin F2α analogs** like latanoprost are generally considered **first-line therapy** for open-angle glaucoma due to their efficacy and once-daily dosing. - They work by **increasing uveoscleral outflow** of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure (IOP). *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that reduces aqueous humor production. - It is typically used for **acute angle-closure glaucoma** or when initial treatments fail, often due to systemic side effects with long-term use. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **non-selective beta-blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production. - While effective, it is often a second-line agent or used in combination due to potential systemic side effects like **bronchospasm** and **bradycardia**. *Brimonidine* - **Brimonidine** is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow. - It is typically used as a second-line agent or in combination therapy due to potential side effects like **ocular pruritus** and **allergic conjunctivitis**.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause proptosis?

Myxoedema. ***Myxoedema*** - **Myxoedema** is associated with severe **hypothyroidism** and is characterized by non-pitting edema due to the accumulation of **glycosaminoglycans** in tissues. - While it can cause facial puffiness, it is **least likely** to cause **proptosis** as there is no direct mechanism for an increase in orbital contents to push the eye forward. *Grave's disease* - **Grave's disease** is the most common cause of **proptosis** due to **immune-mediated inflammation** and accumulation of **glycosaminoglycans** and fat in the orbital tissues, leading to expansion. - This condition specifically affects the **extraocular muscles** and fat, causing bulging of the eyes. *Sarcoidosis* - **Orbital sarcoidosis** can cause **proptosis** due to the formation of **granulomas** within the orbit, leading to mass effect and inflammation. - It can affect any part of the eye and orbit, leading to varied clinical presentations including axial or non-axial globe displacement. *Pituitary adenoma* - A **pituitary adenoma** itself does not directly cause proptosis as it is located in the **sella turcica**, posterior to the orbits. - However, **large adenomas** can cause proptosis indirectly if they invade the **cavernous sinus** and obstruct venous return from the orbit, or if they are associated with **acromegaly**, which can lead to bony overgrowth of the orbital structures and surrounding tissues.

Q: Maximum correction of myopia can be done by?

LASIK. ***LASIK*** - **LASIK (Laser-Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis)** allows for significant correction of high myopia by reshaping the cornea with an excimer laser. - It involves creating a **corneal flap** and then ablating tissue underneath, offering precise and stable vision correction for a wide range of refractive errors. - Among the given corneal refractive procedures, LASIK can correct myopia up to **-10 to -12 D**. *Radial keratotomy* - **Radial keratotomy (RK)** involves making radial incisions in the cornea to flatten it, primarily used for low to moderate myopia (up to -3 to -4 D). - It has a higher risk of **unpredictable outcomes**, induced astigmatism, and glare compared to modern laser procedures. *Photorefractive keratectomy* - **Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK)** involves direct ablation of the corneal surface without creating a flap, which is suitable for moderate myopia (up to -8 to -10 D). - While effective, PRK typically has a **longer recovery period** and more post-operative pain than LASIK. *Orthokeratology* - **Orthokeratology (Ortho-K)** uses specially designed rigid contact lenses worn overnight to temporarily reshape the cornea and correct myopia. - The effect is **temporary**, requiring continuous lens wear to maintain vision correction, and is generally limited to low to moderate myopia (up to -4 to -6 D).

Question 1

Cicatrising trachoma is associated with which stage of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Stage-3

Answer

Stage-1

Answer

Stage-2

Answer

Stage-4

Question 2

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is primarily associated with hypersensitivity to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Pneumococcus

Answer

Aspergillus

Question 3

Van Herick angle grade '3' of anterior chamber denotes

Accepted Answer

Moderately open angle

Answer

Wide open angle

Answer

Closed angle

Answer

Narrow angle

Question 4

What is the most common symptom associated with congenital glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Excessive tearing

Answer

Eye pain

Answer

Sensitivity to light

Answer

Itching of the eyes

Question 5

What are the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis

Answer

Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema

Answer

Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

What is the first-line treatment for acute angle closure glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Acetazolamide

Answer

Pilocarpine

Answer

Beta blocker eyedrops

Answer

IV mannitol

Question 7

Which Goldmann type is considered the standard in perimetry?

Accepted Answer

Goldmann type III (commonly used stimulus size)

Answer

Goldmann type I (small stimulus size)

Answer

Goldmann type II (medium-small stimulus size)

Answer

Goldmann type IV (large stimulus size)

Question 8

Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma:

Accepted Answer

Latanoprost

Answer

Acetazolamide

Answer

Brimonidine

Answer

Timolol

Question 9

Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause proptosis?

Accepted Answer

Myxoedema

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Grave's disease

Answer

Pituitary adenoma

Question 10

Maximum correction of myopia can be done by?

Accepted Answer

LASIK

Answer

Radial keratotomy

Answer

Photorefractive keratectomy

Answer

Orthokeratology

NEET-PG 2013 — Ophthalmology