Which condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?
Which hormone is known to be elevated in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
In Stein-Leventhal syndrome, which hormone is raised?
Which of the following actions should be avoided during the delivery of an Rh-negative mother?
Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?
What is the primary hormonal cause of anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)?
In which stage of cervical carcinoma is surgery performed to retain the possibility of conception?
Bishop scoring is done for ?
What does teratozoospermia refer to?
Ovarian reserve is best indicated by
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which condition is associated with HAIR-AN syndrome?
- A. CA ovary
- B. Adrenal tumours
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **HAIR-AN syndrome** is a specific, severe form of **PCOS**, characterized by **HyperAndrogenism**, **Insulin Resistance**, and severe **Acanthosis Nigricans**. - It represents the most pronounced metabolic and endocrine abnormalities associated with PCOS, often with significant hyperinsulinemia. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis involves the growth of **endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus**, causing pain and infertility. - It is not directly linked to the metabolic and hormonal disturbances seen in HAIR-AN syndrome. *CA ovary* - **Ovarian cancer** is a malignant proliferation of ovarian cells, which is not associated with the unique features of **hyperandrogenism**, **insulin resistance**, or **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - Ovarian tumors can be hormone-producing, but this is distinct from the syndrome's chronic metabolic dysregulation. *Adrenal tumours* - **Adrenal tumors** can cause **hyperandrogenism** in some cases, leading to symptoms like hirsutism, but they typically do not present with the constellation of **insulin resistance** and severe **acanthosis nigricans** that define HAIR-AN syndrome. - The primary defect in HAIR-AN is ovarian and metabolic, rather than adrenal.
Question 32: Which hormone is known to be elevated in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
- A. FSH
- B. Estrogen
- C. TSH
- D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Luteinizing Hormone (LH)*** - In **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, there is often an elevated **Luteinizing Hormone (LH)** level, leading to an increased **LH:FSH ratio**. - This high LH level contributes to **increased androgen production** by the ovaries, a key feature of PCOS. *FSH* - **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** levels are typically normal or even low in PCOS, contributing to the **imbalance with LH**. - This relative deficiency of FSH impairs proper **follicle maturation**, leading to anovulation and cyst formation. *Estrogen* - While **estrogen** levels can be normal or slightly elevated due to peripheral conversion of androgens, they are not primarily responsible for the characteristic hormonal imbalance in PCOS. - The elevated **androgens** in PCOS are converted to estrogen in adipose tissue, but this is a secondary effect. *TSH* - **Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)** is involved in thyroid function and is generally unrelated to the **pathophysiology of PCOS**, although thyroid disorders can co-exist with PCOS. - Elevated TSH suggests **hypothyroidism**, a distinct endocrine condition that would present with different symptoms.
Question 33: In Stein-Leventhal syndrome, which hormone is raised?
- A. LH (Correct Answer)
- B. FSH
- C. GnRH
- D. Progesterone
Explanation: ***LH*** - In **Stein-Leventhal syndrome** (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome, PCOS), there is an elevated **LH (Luteinizing Hormone)** level. - This high LH-to-FSH ratio contributes to increased **androgen production** by the ovarian theca cells, leading to symptoms like hirsutism and anovulation. *FSH* - **FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)** levels are typically normal or even low in PCOS, contributing to the elevated LH:FSH ratio. - Low FSH levels impair proper follicle maturation, leading to **anovulation** and the characteristic polycystic appearance of the ovaries. *GnRH* - **GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone)** secretion can be altered in PCOS, often showing increased pulse frequency, which preferentially stimulates LH release over FSH. - However, **GnRH levels themselves are not directly measured** as "raised" in the clinical diagnostic criteria for PCOS. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** levels are often low or absent in PCOS, particularly in the luteal phase, due to **anovulation**. - The lack of regular ovulation means no corpus luteum forms, which is responsible for progesterone production after ovulation.
Question 34: Which of the following actions should be avoided during the delivery of an Rh-negative mother?
- A. Gently perform manual removal of placenta if necessary (Correct Answer)
- B. Withhold ergometrine until after anterior shoulder delivery
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Apply fundal pressure during second stage of labor
Explanation: ***Gently perform manual removal of placenta if necessary*** - **Manual removal of the placenta** can significantly increase the risk of **fetomaternal hemorrhage**, which is particularly dangerous in an **Rh-negative mother**. Large amounts of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation can lead to significant alloimmunization, making subsequent pregnancies high-risk. - This procedure should be **avoided if possible** due to the heightened risk of sensitizing the mother to Rh antigens; if it is absolutely necessary, a **higher dose of Rh immunoglobulin** may be required. *Withhold ergometrine until after anterior shoulder delivery* - **Ergometrine** is a uterotonic agent used to prevent **postpartum hemorrhage**. Withholding it until after the birth of the anterior shoulder is a **standard practice** to prevent uterine tetany before the baby is fully delivered. - This action does not pose a specific risk to an **Rh-negative mother** related to Rh sensitization; it is a general obstetric safety measure to ensure safe delivery and should **not be avoided**. *Apply fundal pressure during second stage of labor* - **Fundal pressure** (applying pressure to the top of the uterus to expedite delivery) is a **controversial practice** that is generally discouraged due to potential maternal and fetal complications. - While it may theoretically carry a small risk of **fetomaternal hemorrhage**, it is not specifically contraindicated in Rh-negative mothers more than in others. The main concerns are **uterine rupture**, **maternal injury**, and **fetal trauma**. If appropriate precautions with **Rh immunoglobulin** are taken, Rh status alone is not a reason to avoid this practice (though it should generally be avoided for other safety reasons). *Administer IV fluids* - **Intravenous fluids** are commonly administered during labor and delivery to maintain **hydration**, support **blood pressure**, and provide a route for medications. This is a **routine and safe practice**. - Administering IV fluids has no direct impact on **Rh sensitization** and is not contraindicated in an **Rh-negative mother**.
Question 35: Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?
- A. Vaginal candidiasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Chlamydia
- D. Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: ***Vaginal candidiasis*** - **Vaginal candidiasis**, commonly known as a yeast infection, is the **most frequent genital infection** during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that alter the vaginal microenvironment. - Pregnancy increases susceptibility through **elevated estrogen levels**, **increased vaginal glycogen**, and **altered vaginal pH**. - While generally not harmful to the fetus, it can cause significant maternal discomfort with symptoms like **itching**, burning, and a **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge**. *Gonorrhea* - Gonorrhea is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** that, although possible, is not the most common genital infection in pregnancy. - It carries a risk of serious complications for both mother and infant, including **preterm birth**, **chorioamnionitis**, and **neonatal conjunctivitis** (ophthalmia neonatorum). *Chlamydia* - Chlamydia is another **STI** that can occur during pregnancy but is not as common as candidiasis. - Untreated chlamydia can lead to **preterm rupture of membranes**, **preterm labor**, and **postpartum endometritis** in the mother, and **conjunctivitis** or **pneumonia** in the newborn. *Bacterial vaginosis* - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an **imbalance in normal vaginal flora**, with overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. - While BV is the most common vaginal infection in **non-pregnant women**, vaginal candidiasis is more frequently encountered during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. - BV in pregnancy is associated with increased risk of **preterm birth**, **preterm rupture of membranes**, and **postpartum endometritis**, making screening and treatment important.
Question 36: What is the primary hormonal cause of anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)?
- A. Insufficient progesterone due to anovulation (Correct Answer)
- B. Excess estrogen production from ovarian follicles
- C. Hypothalamic dysfunction affecting ovulation
- D. High levels of progesterone due to luteal phase defect
Explanation: ***Insufficient progesterone due to anovulation*** - Anovulation prevents the formation of a **corpus luteum**, which is responsible for producing progesterone. - The lack of progesterone leads to an **unstable, proliferative endometrium** that eventually sheds irregularly, causing abnormal uterine bleeding. - This is the **primary hormonal defect** in anovulatory DUB. *Excess estrogen production from ovarian follicles* - While **unopposed estrogen** is present in anovulatory cycles, the primary issue is the *absence of progesterone*, not necessarily excess estrogen production. - Estrogen levels may be normal or even low, but without progesterone to stabilize the endometrium, irregular shedding occurs. - Excess estrogen primarily leads to **endometrial hyperplasia** rather than irregular bleeding. *Hypothalamic dysfunction affecting ovulation* - Hypothalamic dysfunction (e.g., due to stress, extreme exercise) can be an *underlying cause* of anovulation. - However, the *primary hormonal mechanism* of the bleeding itself is the subsequent lack of progesterone, not the hypothalamic dysfunction directly. *High levels of progesterone due to luteal phase defect* - A **luteal phase defect** involves *insufficient* progesterone production or response, not high levels. - High progesterone levels would stabilize the endometrium and promote regular shedding, preventing DUB.
Question 37: In which stage of cervical carcinoma is surgery performed to retain the possibility of conception?
- A. Stage 1B1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Stage 1B2
- C. Stage 2A
- D. Stage 2B
Explanation: ***Stage 1B1*** - In **Stage 1B1 cervical carcinoma** (FIGO 2018), the tumor size is **≤2 cm** and confined to the cervix, making it amenable to **fertility-sparing surgery** like radical trachelectomy. - This stage allows for removal of the cervix and parametrium while preserving the **uterine body** and ovaries, thus retaining the possibility of conception. - Strict selection criteria must be met including tumor size ≤2 cm, no lymphovascular space invasion, negative lymph nodes, and adequate follow-up compliance. *Stage 1B2* - **Stage 1B2** (FIGO 2018) involves tumors **>2 cm to ≤4 cm** but still confined to the cervix, which generally have a higher risk of recurrence and lymph node metastasis. - While fertility-sparing surgery might be considered in highly selective cases with tumors 2-3 cm, it is much less commonly performed than in Stage 1B1 due to the increased tumor burden and higher oncological risk. *Stage 2A* - In **Stage 2A cervical carcinoma**, the tumor has spread beyond the cervix to involve the upper two-thirds of the vagina (2A1: ≤4 cm, 2A2: >4 cm) but not the parametrium. - The disease extent typically necessitates more aggressive treatment such as radical hysterectomy or **chemoradiation**, precluding preservation of fertility in most cases. *Stage 2B* - **Stage 2B** involves tumor invasion into the **parametrium**, making fertility-sparing surgery contraindicated and typically requiring **definitive chemoradiation**. - The spread of cancer to the parametrium indicates a more advanced disease that cannot be adequately treated by methods that preserve fertility.
Question 38: Bishop scoring is done for ?
- A. Exchange transfusion in newborns
- B. Newborn ventilation assessment
- C. Newborn gestation assessment
- D. Induction of labor assessment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Induction of labor assessment*** - The **Bishop score** is a pre-labor scoring system used to assess the ripeness of the cervix. - A higher score indicates a more **favorable cervix** for the successful **induction of labor**. *Exchange transfusion in newborns* - **Exchange transfusion** is primarily indicated for severe hyperbilirubinemia or hemolytic disease in newborns. - Its assessment is based on **bilirubin levels** and other clinical factors, not the Bishop score. *Newborn ventilation assessment* - **Newborn ventilation assessment** involves evaluating respiratory effort, heart rate, and oxygenation status, often using scores like the **Apgar score**. - The Bishop score is unrelated to neonatal respiratory function. *Newborn gestation assessment* - **Newborn gestation assessment** is typically performed using methods like the **New Ballard Score** or by reviewing prenatal ultrasound dating. - The Bishop score is used in *maternal* obstetric management, not directly for neonatal gestational age estimation.
Question 39: What does teratozoospermia refer to?
- A. Low sperm count
- B. Sperm with abnormal motility
- C. Absence of sperm in semen
- D. Morphologically defective sperm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Morphologically defective sperm*** - **Teratozoospermia** specifically refers to the presence of an unusually high percentage of **abnormally shaped sperm** in an ejaculate. - These malformations can affect the **head, midpiece, or tail** of the sperm, potentially impairing its ability to fertilize an egg. *Low sperm count* - This condition is known as **oligozoospermia**, which refers to a sperm concentration below the normal range. - While low sperm count can affect fertility, it is distinct from issues with sperm morphology. *Sperm with abnormal motility* - This condition is called **asthenozoospermia**, characterized by reduced or absent sperm movement. - Poor motility impacts the sperm's ability to reach and penetrate the egg, but it is not directly related to sperm shape. *Absence of sperm in semen* - The complete absence of sperm in the ejaculate is known as **azoospermia**. - This is a severe form of male infertility, different from having sperm with structural defects.
Question 40: Ovarian reserve is best indicated by
- A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- B. Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) (Correct Answer)
- C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D. LH/FSH ratio
Explanation: ***Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)*** - **AMH is currently considered the best single biochemical marker** for assessing ovarian reserve - Produced by **granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles**, directly reflecting the size of the primordial follicle pool - **Cycle-independent** - can be measured at any time during the menstrual cycle - **More sensitive and specific** than FSH for detecting diminished ovarian reserve - **Minimal inter-cycle and intra-cycle variability**, providing consistent and reliable results - Widely used in **fertility assessment, IVF protocols**, and predicting ovarian response to stimulation *Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)* - Elevated **early follicular phase FSH** (measured on day 3) indicates diminished ovarian reserve - Historically the most commonly used marker, but **less sensitive than AMH** - **Cycle-dependent** - must be measured on specific days (day 2-4 of cycle) - A **late marker** - rises only when ovarian reserve is already significantly diminished - Still clinically useful and widely available, but not the "best" indicator *Luteinizing hormone (LH)* - **LH** primarily triggers ovulation and does not directly reflect ovarian reserve - Elevated in conditions like **PCOS** but does not assess the quantity or quality of remaining follicles - Not a reliable indicator of overall ovarian reserve *LH/FSH ratio* - An elevated **LH/FSH ratio** (>2:1 or >3:1) is associated with **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)** - Reflects anovulation and hormonal imbalance, not the number or viability of ovarian follicles - Does not assess ovarian reserve capacity