In the context of hemorrhagic pancreatitis, which sign is indicated by bluish discoloration of the flank?
Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:
In total parenteral nutrition, which of the following parameters is not routinely measured daily?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
Metabolic change in severe vomiting is
Use of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is
What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: In the context of hemorrhagic pancreatitis, which sign is indicated by bluish discoloration of the flank?
- A. Grey Turner's sign (Correct Answer)
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Trousseau's sign
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Grey Turner's sign*** - This sign refers to **bluish discoloration of the flank** due to **hemorrhage** into the retroperitoneal space, commonly seen in severe hemorrhagic pancreatitis. [1] - The discoloration is caused by **peripancreatic inflammation** and fat necrosis, leading to localized bleeding. *Cullen's sign* - Cullen's sign is characterized by **bluish discoloration around the umbilicus**. - It is also indicative of **retroperitoneal hemorrhage**, but specifically in the periumbilical region. *Trousseau's sign* - This sign refers to **carpal spasm** induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for several minutes. - It is indicative of **hypocalcemia**, not hemorrhage, and is seen in conditions like pancreatitis that cause low calcium levels. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Grey Turner's sign** specifically describes the bluish discoloration of the flank associated with hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
Question 82: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperosmolar dehydration
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.
Question 83: What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
- A. 750 - 1500 ml
- B. 1500 - 2000 ml (Correct Answer)
- C. > 2000 ml
- D. < 750 ml
Explanation: ***1500 - 2000 ml*** - **Class III hemorrhagic shock** is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume, typically ranging from **30-40%** of total blood volume. - For an average adult, this translates to an estimated **1500-2000 ml** of blood loss, leading to marked physiological compromise. *750 - 1500 ml* - This range of blood loss corresponds to **Class II hemorrhagic shock**, where physiological changes are moderate, but compensatory mechanisms are still largely effective. - Patients in Class II shock typically present with **tachycardia** and a slight decrease in pulse pressure but generally normal blood pressure. *> 2000 ml* - A blood loss exceeding **2000 ml** (or >40% of total blood volume) is indicative of **Class IV hemorrhagic shock**, the most severe category. - This level of blood loss results in pronounced **hypotension**, severe tachycardia, and often requires immediate massive transfusion to prevent irreversible organ damage. *< 750 ml* - This range represents **Class I hemorrhagic shock**, which involves a minimal blood loss of up to 15% of total blood volume. - Patients in Class I shock typically show **minimal to no clinical signs of shock**, as compensatory mechanisms are highly effective in maintaining vital signs.
Question 84: Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:
- A. Type 3 (Correct Answer)
- B. Type 1
- C. Type 4
- D. Type 2
Explanation: ***Type 3*** - **Type 3 ulcers** are located in the **prepyloric region** or within the **pyloric channel** of the stomach. - They are often associated with **duodenal ulcers** and are characterized by **normal to high acid secretion**. *Type 1* - **Type 1 ulcers** are typically found in the **lesser curvature of the stomach body**, not the prepyloric region. - These ulcers are usually associated with **low or normal acid secretion** and are often linked to *H. pylori* infection. *Type 2* - **Type 2 ulcers** involve both a **gastric ulcer** (usually in the body) and an **active or healed duodenal ulcer**. - They are associated with **normal to high acid secretion**, but the location is not exclusively prepyloric. *Type 4* - **Type 4 ulcers** are located high on the **lesser curvature near the gastroesophageal junction**. - They are associated with **low acid secretion** and are sometimes termed **juxta-esophageal ulcers**.
Question 85: In total parenteral nutrition, which of the following parameters is not routinely measured daily?
- A. Electrolyte
- B. Fluid intake and output
- C. Magnesium
- D. Liver function tests (LFTs) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Liver function tests (LFTs)*** - **LFTs** are typically monitored periodically (e.g., weekly or bi-weekly) in patients on TPN, not daily, unless there are specific concerns about liver dysfunction [1]. - Daily monitoring is generally not required because changes in liver function due to TPN are usually insidious and not acutely life-threatening in hours. *Electrolyte* - **Electrolytes** (e.g., sodium, potassium, chloride) are crucial for cellular function and fluid balance [2]. They can fluctuate rapidly with TPN administration and patient's clinical status. - Daily measurement ensures prompt correction of imbalances to prevent serious complications like **cardiac arrhythmias** or neurological disturbances [2]. *Fluid intake and output* - **Fluid intake and output** are essential for assessing **hydration status** and preventing fluid overload or dehydration, which can change rapidly [2]. - Daily monitoring helps guide adjustments to fluid administration in TPN and other intravenous fluids. *Magnesium* - **Magnesium** is an important electrolyte involved in numerous enzymatic reactions and neuromuscular function, and its levels can be significantly affected by TPN [2]. - Daily or frequent monitoring is often necessary, especially in the initial phases of TPN or in patients with pre-existing deficiencies, to prevent complications such as **cardiac arrhythmias** or **weakness** [2].
Question 86: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
- A. Calcinosis cutis
- B. Digital ulcers
- C. Acroosteolysis
- D. Gottron's papules (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gottron's papules*** - **Gottron's papules** are pathognomonic for **dermatomyositis**, not systemic sclerosis. They are red, scaling papules found over the extensor surfaces of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints. - While both systemic sclerosis and dermatomyositis are connective tissue diseases, their distinct cutaneous manifestations aid in differentiation. *Acroosteolysis* - **Acroosteolysis** refers to the resorption of the distal phalanges, a common feature in systemic sclerosis, particularly in severe cases. - This symptom contributes to the characteristic digital abnormalities seen in the disease. *Calcinosis cutis* - **Calcinosis cutis** is the deposition of calcium in the skin and subcutaneous tissues, often seen in subsets of systemic sclerosis, especially the CREST syndrome. - It can manifest as firm, white-yellow nodules or plaques and contribute to skin breakdown. *Digital ulcers* - **Digital ulcers** are a frequent and debilitating complication of systemic sclerosis, resulting from severe **vasculopathy** [1] and **ischemia** [1]. - They are often painful and can lead to significant tissue loss and infection.
Question 87: Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
- A. Increased local temperature
- B. Erythematous scrotum
- C. Decreased blood flow (Correct Answer)
- D. Raised TLC
Explanation: ***Decreased blood flow*** - **Acute orchitis** is an inflammatory process that typically leads to increased blood flow (hyperemia) to the affected testis due to the inflammatory response. - Decreased blood flow would be more characteristic of conditions like **testicular torsion**, which is an emergent condition causing ischemia. *Increased local temperature* - **Inflammation** is characterized by the classic signs of rubor (redness) and calor (heat), leading to an **increased local temperature** in the affected area. - This is a common finding in acute orchitis due to the inflammatory response. *Erythematous scrotum* - The inflammatory process in orchitis causes **vasodilation** and increased vascular permeability, leading to redness and swelling of the overlying scrotal skin. - An **erythematous scrotum** is a typical clinical sign of acute orchitis. *Raised TLC* - **TLC (Total Leukocyte Count)** is often elevated in cases of acute infection or inflammation, such as orchitis. - A **raised TLC** indicates a systemic inflammatory response to the infection.
Question 88: Metabolic change in severe vomiting is
- A. Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid (Correct Answer)
- B. Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation
- C. Hyperkalemia due to renal dysfunction
- D. Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure
Explanation: **Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of gastric acid** - Severe vomiting leads to the loss of **hydrochloric acid (HCl)** from the stomach, causing an increase in plasma bicarbonate and subsequently **metabolic alkalosis** [1], [3]. - This condition is often accompanied by **hypokalemia** due to renal compensation and increased aldosterone activity [1]. *Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation* - **Hyperventilation** causes a decrease in arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), leading to **respiratory alkalosis** [2]. - While vomiting can sometimes cause mild hyperventilation due to discomfort, the primary metabolic derangement from severe vomiting is related to acid loss, not CO2 expulsion [4]. *Hyperkalemia due to renal dysfunction* - **Hyperkalemia** is an elevated potassium level, typically associated with **renal failure** or certain medications. - In severe vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid and subsequent fluid shifts tend to cause **hypokalemia** as the kidneys try to conserve hydrogen and excrete potassium [1]. *Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure* - **Metabolic acidosis** is characterized by a decrease in blood pH and bicarbonate, often caused by the accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate [3]. - **Renal failure** is a common cause of metabolic acidosis due to impaired acid excretion, which is not the primary issue in severe vomiting.
Question 89: Use of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is
- A. Decrease edema (Correct Answer)
- B. May improve liver function indirectly
- C. May decrease afterload
- D. May decrease intravascular volume
Explanation: ***Decrease edema*** - Spironolactone is an **aldosterone antagonist** that blocks the effects of aldosterone, which is often elevated in liver cirrhosis. - By antagonizing aldosterone, spironolactone promotes **sodium and water excretion**, directly leading to a reduction in **ascites and peripheral edema** [1]. *May improve liver function indirectly* - While spironolactone manages complications of liver cirrhosis, it does **not directly improve liver function** or reverse liver damage. - Its primary role is in **symptom management**, particularly fluid retention, not in healing the underlying liver disease. *May decrease afterload* - Spironolactone's primary action is on the **kidneys** to promote diuresis; it is **not a vasodilator** and therefore does not directly decrease cardiac afterload. - Any effect on systemic vascular resistance would be minimal and secondary to volume changes rather than a direct vasodilatory property. *May decrease intravascular volume* - Spironolactone **decreases total body sodium and water**, leading to a reduction in extravascular fluid (edema and ascites) [1]. - While it decreases the total amount of fluid in the body, its main effect is on **extravascular volume**, and it's chosen over loop diuretics in cirrhosis to prevent **excessive intravascular depletion** which can worsen renal function.
Question 90: What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
- A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts
- C. High platelet and lymphocyte counts
- D. A reduction in all blood cell types
Explanation: ***Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia*** - **Evans syndrome** is defined by the simultaneous or sequential occurrence of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** and **immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)** [1], [2]. - Both conditions involve the immune system mistakenly attacking and destroying **red blood cells** and **platelets**, respectively [1], [2]. *Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts* - While **red blood cell counts** are low in Evans syndrome due to AIHA, **lymphocyte counts** are not a defining characteristic; they can vary. - This option does not fully capture the dual autoimmune destruction of red blood cells and platelets specific to Evans syndrome. *High platelet and lymphocyte counts* - **Platelet counts** are **low** in Evans syndrome due to ITP, not high. - **Lymphocyte counts** are not characteristically high; a high count might suggest other conditions like leukemias or lymphomas. *A reduction in all blood cell types* - A reduction in all (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) is known as **pancytopenia**, which is not the defining feature of Evans syndrome. - Evans syndrome specifically involves the destruction of **red blood cells** and **platelets**, but not necessarily all white blood cell types.