NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common location of gastrinoma?

Duodenum. ***Duodenum*** - The **duodenum** is the most common site for gastrinomas, accounting for over **half of all cases**, particularly in sporadic gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - These tumors are often **small** and **multiple** in the duodenum, making them challenging to locate. *Pancreas* - Pancreatic gastrinomas are also common, representing approximately **25-40% of cases**, but are less frequent than duodenal gastrinomas. - Pancreatic gastrinomas tend to be **larger** and more amenable to surgical resection when compared to duodenal gastrinomas. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas found in the jejunum are **rare**, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. - The small intestine distal to the duodenum is an **uncommon site** for primary gastrinoma formation. *Gall bladder* - The **gallbladder** is not a typical location for gastrinoma development. - Gastrinomas are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from **gastrin-producing cells**, which are not found in the gallbladder.

Q: Which of the following does not synthesize von Willebrand factor?

Hepatocytes. ***Hepatocytes*** - Von Willebrand factor (vWF) is primarily synthesized by **endothelial cells** and **megakaryocytes** [1], not hepatocytes. - Hepatocytes are responsible for synthesizing other proteins like **clotting factors**, but not vWF. *Megakaryoctyes* - Megakaryocytes play a crucial role in the synthesis of **platelet-derived factors**, including von Willebrand factor (vWF) [1]. - They release vWF into the bloodstream, facilitating platelet adhesion, especially in vascular injury sites. *None* - The option implies all listed cell types synthesize vWF, which is incorrect, as **only endothelial cells and megakaryocytes** produce it [1]. - Suggests a misunderstanding of the synthesis of coagulation-related factors, as hepatocytes do not produce vWF. *Endothelial cells* - Endothelial cells are the primary source of **von Willebrand factor** [1], releasing it to assist in platelet aggregation and clotting. - They are essential for the body's response to vascular injury, facilitating hemostasis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 669-670.

Q: Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

Post-operative atelectasis. ***Post-operative atelectasis*** - **Type 3 respiratory failure**, also known as **perioperative respiratory failure**, is characterized by hypoxemia occurring typically after surgery. - **Atelectasis**, the collapse of lung tissue, is a common cause of hypoxemia in the post-operative period due to shallow breathing, pain, and anesthesia affecting lung volumes. *Kyphoscoliosis* - This condition leads to a **restrictive lung disease** due to chest wall deformity, causing chronic respiratory failure. [1] - It more typically results in **Type 2 respiratory failure** (hypercapnic) due to impaired ventilation over time. [1] *Flail chest* - Flail chest is a severe chest wall injury causing paradoxical movement, leading to **acute respiratory failure**. - It is often associated with **Type 1 (hypoxemic)** or **Type 2 (hypercapnic)** respiratory failure due to trauma-induced lung injury and impaired mechanics. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - This is a progressive interstitial lung disease causing **restrictive ventilatory defect** and impaired gas exchange. - It leads to chronic **Type 1 respiratory failure** (hypoxemic) as the lung tissue becomes stiff and scarred.

Q: Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?

Autosomal dominant. ***Autosomal dominant*** - While there are rare autosomal dominant forms, the most common and classic presentation of **Alport's syndrome is X-linked recessive**, affecting males more severely. - This statement is incorrect because it implies that autosomal dominant inheritance is the primary or typical mode, which is not true for the majority of cases. *Nerve deafness* - **Sensorineural hearing loss**, particularly for high frequencies, is a common and characteristic extra-renal manifestation of Alport's syndrome. - This symptom typically progresses with age and is a key diagnostic feature. *Glomerulonephritis* - **Progressive glomerulonephritis** is the hallmark renal feature of Alport's syndrome, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and eventually end-stage renal disease. - It is caused by mutations in collagen type IV genes, which disrupt the integrity of the glomerular basement membrane. *X-linked* - The majority of Alport's syndrome cases (about 85%) are **X-linked recessive**, caused by mutations in the *COL4A5* gene located on the X chromosome. - This explains why males are more severely affected and typically present with earlier onset and more rapid progression of renal disease.

Q: Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except which of the following?

Psoriasis. ***Psoriasis*** - Psoriasis is generally not associated with **autoimmune thyroiditis**, which is more commonly linked to other autoimmune disorders [1]. - Autoimmune thyroiditis does not typically result in the **skin changes** seen in psoriasis, distinguishing them clinically. *Sly* - Sly syndrome, while a genetic disorder, is not directly connected to **autoimmune thyroiditis**. - Conditions like Sly syndrome are metabolic and do not involve the autoimmune pathways typically seen in thyroiditis. *Myasthenia gravis* - Myasthenia gravis is an **autoimmune neuromuscular disorder** that can occur concurrently with thyroid diseases, particularly **thyroiditis** [1]. - Both conditions arise from **autoimmune processes**, making their association plausible [1]. *DM* - Diabetes Mellitus (DM), particularly Type 1, is often linked with other autoimmune diseases, including **autoimmune thyroiditis** [2]. - They share a common **autoimmune pathway**, making them more likely to co-occur than psoriasis [2].

Q: What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?

Supportive care, including respiratory support. **Supportive care, including respiratory support** * **Paralysis** in organophosphorus poisoning (OPP) is often due to **nicotinic effects** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to respiratory muscle weakness and failure [2]. * **Respiratory support** through mechanical ventilation is crucial to maintain oxygenation and prevent complications while awaiting the effects of antidotal therapy [1], [2]. * *Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms* * **Atropine** primarily blocks **muscarinic receptors**, effectively treating symptoms like bradycardia, bronchorrhea, and miosis [2]. * It does **not reverse the nicotinic effects** responsible for muscle paralysis and respiratory failure. * *Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase* * **Oximes (e.g., pralidoxime)** reactivate **acetylcholinesterase**, thereby addressing the underlying cause of acetylcholine accumulation [2]. * They are most effective if given **early** before irreversible aging of the enzyme occurs, but their effect on established paralysis can be limited without concurrent respiratory support [2]. * *No specific antidote* * This statement is incorrect; **atropine** and **oximes** are specific antidotes for organophosphorus poisoning [2]. * While these antidotes are vital, initial management prioritizing **airway and breathing support** is paramount due to the life-threatening respiratory paralysis [1].

Q: Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-

Deltoid. Deltoid - The **deltoid muscle** is the recommended site for intramuscular injection of cell culture rabies vaccine due to its size and accessibility [1]. - Intramuscular administration in this area ensures optimal vaccine absorption and immunogenicity [1]. Gluteus - The **gluteus muscle** is not the preferred site for rabies vaccine due to the risk of injecting into fat, which can lead to reduced immune response [1]. - Additionally, there is a higher risk of **sciatic nerve injury** with gluteal injections. Subcutaneous - **Subcutaneous administration** is not the standard route for cell culture rabies vaccines as it can lead to slower absorption and potentially a less robust immune response. - This route is typically reserved for specific vaccine types or in situations where intramuscular injection is contraindicated. Anterior abdominal wall - The **anterior abdominal wall** is an unsuitable site for intramuscular injection of rabies vaccine. - This area is primarily used for **subcutaneous injections** (e.g., insulin) and lacks sufficient muscle mass for effective intramuscular vaccine delivery.

Q: Most common cause of death in diphtheria is due to

Toxic cardiomyopathy. ***Toxic cardiomyopathy*** - Diphtheria toxin primarily targets and damages the **myocardium**, leading to heart failure, arrhythmias, and ultimately death. - Myocardial damage can occur even in mild cases and is the most frequent cause of **fatality** in both treated and untreated diphtheria. *Airway obstruction* - While significant **pharyngeal and laryngeal pseudomembrane formation** can cause severe respiratory distress and obstruction, it is not the most common cause of death overall. - Prompt medical intervention, such as **tracheostomy** or antitoxin administration, can often alleviate acute airway issues. *Septic shock* - Diphtheria itself is a **toxin-mediated disease**, not typically characterized by overwhelming bacterial sepsis leading to septic shock as the primary cause of death. - While secondary infections can occur, direct **toxin-induced organ damage** is the main concern. *Descending polyneuropathy (rare)* - **Neurological complications**, such as polyneuropathy, can occur later in the course of diphtheria due to toxin effects. - However, these are generally less common and less immediately life-threatening than **cardiac complications**, and rarely the direct cause of death.

Q: Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?

Steatorrhea and flatulence. ***Steatorrhea and flatulence*** - **Giardiasis** is an intestinal infection caused by the parasite *Giardia lamblia*, leading to malabsorption and characteristic symptoms [1]. - The parasite attaches to the intestinal lining, interfering with fat absorption, which results in **steatorrhea** (fatty, foul-smelling stools) and increased gas production causing **flatulence** [1]. *Nausea and vomiting* - While **nausea** can occur in giardiasis, **vomiting** is less common as a primary or dominant symptom. - These symptoms are more characteristic of other gastrointestinal infections like **viral gastroenteritis**. *Abdominal pain* - **Abdominal pain** is a general symptom that can occur with many gastrointestinal issues, including giardiasis [1]. - However, it's not as specific or as clinically defining for giardiasis as **steatorrhea** and **flatulence**, which are direct consequences of the parasite's impact on fat absorption. *All of the options* - Although some patients with giardiasis may experience nausea and abdominal pain, **steatorrhea** and **flatulence** are the most direct and specific indicators of the malabsorption caused by *Giardia lamblia* [1]. - Choosing "all of the above" would imply that all listed symptoms are equally common and specific, which is not the case for giardiasis.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least commonly associated with Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS?

Otic polypoid mass. ***Otic polypoid mass*** - While *Pneumocystis jirovecii* (formerly *carinii*) can cause **extrapulmonary disease** in immunocompromised patients, an **otic polypoid mass** is an extremely rare and atypical presentation. - Extrapulmonary manifestations usually involve organs with rich vascular supply, but ear involvement in this form is not a characteristic feature. *Pneumonia* - **Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)** is the **most common opportunistic infection** and AIDS-defining illness caused by *Pneumocystis jirovecii* in individuals with AIDS [1]. - It typically manifests as **fever, cough, and dyspnea** with characteristic imaging findings [1]. *Ophthalmic choroid lesion* - **Choroid lesions** due to *Pneumocystis jirovecii* are a recognized, albeit less common, **extrapulmonary manifestation** in immunocompromised patients, particularly those with AIDS. - These lesions are usually **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally on funduscopic examination. *Meningitis* - Although *Pneumocystis jirovecii* causing **meningitis** is rare, it has been reported in severely immunocompromised individuals with AIDS, often as part of disseminated disease. - Central nervous system involvement signifies **widespread dissemination** and advanced immunosuppression.

Question 1

What is the most common location of gastrinoma?

Accepted Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Pancreas

Answer

Jejunum

Answer

Gall bladder

Question 2

Which of the following does not synthesize von Willebrand factor?

Accepted Answer

Hepatocytes

Answer

Endothelial cells

Answer

Megakaryocytes

Answer

None of the options

Question 3

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

Accepted Answer

Post-operative atelectasis

Answer

Kyphoscoliosis

Answer

Flail chest

Answer

Pulmonary fibrosis

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Alport's syndrome is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Autosomal dominant

Answer

Nerve deafness

Answer

Glomerulonephritis

Answer

X-linked

Question 5

Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Psoriasis

Answer

DM

Answer

Myasthenia gravis

Answer

SLE

Question 6

What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Supportive care, including respiratory support

Answer

Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms

Answer

Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase

Answer

No specific antidote

Question 7

Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine-

Accepted Answer

Deltoid

Answer

Gluteus

Answer

Subcutaneous

Answer

Anterior abdominal wall

Question 8

Most common cause of death in diphtheria is due to

Accepted Answer

Toxic cardiomyopathy

Answer

Airway obstruction

Answer

Septic shock

Answer

Descending polyneuropathy (rare)

Question 9

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?

Accepted Answer

Steatorrhea and flatulence

Answer

All of the options

Answer

Nausea and vomiting

Answer

Abdominal pain

Question 10

Which of the following conditions is least commonly associated with Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Otic polypoid mass

Answer

Meningitis

Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Ophthalmic choroid lesion

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine