NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Impotence is a feature of which of the following:

Multiple sclerosis. ***Multiple sclerosis*** - **Erectile dysfunction** (impotence) is a common symptom in men with multiple sclerosis, often resulting from **demyelination** in nerve pathways controlling sexual function [1], [2]. - MS can affect various neurological functions, leading to problems with **autonomic nervous system** control, sensation, and motor coordination, all of which can impact sexual health. *Poliomyelitis* - Poliomyelitis primarily affects the **anterior horn cells** of the spinal cord, leading to acute **flaccid paralysis** of muscles. - While it can cause muscle weakness and atrophy, it is not typically associated with chronic impotence or sexual dysfunction as a primary feature. *Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis* - ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting **motor neurons**, leading to muscle weakness, atrophy, and spasticity. - It primarily impacts voluntary muscle movement and does not directly cause impotence, although the physical limitations and psychological stress can indirectly affect sexual function. *Meningitis* - Meningitis is an inflammation of the **meninges** (membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord) caused by infection. - Its symptoms include headache, fever, and neck stiffness, and while severe cases can lead to neurological complications, impotence is not a typical direct consequence.

Q: All of the following are features of Obstructive jaundice except:

Normal alkaline phosphatase. ***Normal alkaline phosphatase*** - In obstructive jaundice, alkaline phosphatase is typically **elevated** due to bile duct obstruction [2]. - A **normal level** suggests that the jaundice may not be of obstructive origin. *Pruritis* - Often seen in obstructive jaundice due to **bile salts** accumulating in the bloodstream, leading to itching. - It is a common symptom associated with **cholestasis**. *Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases level* - In obstructive jaundice, serum aminotransferases are usually elevated, though may be mildly in early cases [1]. - This reflects liver involvement, which is consistent with biliary obstruction [2]. *Clay colour stools* - Clay-colored stools arise from the absence of **bile** in the intestines, indicative of obstruction [3]. - This is a direct result of blockage in the bile duct system affecting stool pigmentation [3].

Q: Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL). ***Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL)*** - **LGLL** is the most common hematological malignancy strongly associated with **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, often presenting with features such as **neutropenia** and splenomegaly. - Approximately 80% of patients with LGLL have a **T-cell phenotype**, and a significant subset experiences **autoimmune diseases**, with RA being the most frequent. *Diffuse large B cell lymphoma* - While patients with **RA** have an increased risk of **lymphoma**, **diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)** is a more aggressive type but not the most common hematologic malignancy directly associated with the disease itself in terms of prevalence [3]. - Inflammatory conditions like **RA** can contribute to chronic immune stimulation, increasing the risk of certain lymphomas, but LGLL holds a more direct and prevalent association [1]. *Chronic lymphocytic leukemia* - **Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** is a lymphoproliferative disorder of **B lymphocytes**, but it does not have a particularly strong or common association with **RA** compared to LGLL [2]. - The elevated risk of hematological malignancies in RA patients typically points more towards lymphoproliferative disorders driven by specific immune dysregulations characteristic of RA. *T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia* - **T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia (T-PLL)** is a rare and aggressive **T-cell leukemia** that generally presents with a high white blood cell count and splenomegaly, but it is not commonly linked with **RA**. - Its clinical presentation and biology are distinct from the more indolent leukemias like LGLL that are often seen in conjunction with autoimmune conditions.

Q: Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?

GI bleeding. ***GI bleeding*** - While patients on dialysis may experience gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not a direct indication for initiating or continuing **hemodialysis**. - **GI bleeding** in end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients can be due to various causes and requires specific management of the bleeding itself, not necessarily an alteration in dialysis prescription. *Convulsions* - **Convulsions** in patients with renal failure, especially due to uremia, are a severe manifestation of **uremic encephalopathy**. - This is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** as it rapidly removes uremic toxins causing central nervous system dysfunction. *Pericarditis* - **Uremic pericarditis**, characterized by inflammation of the pericardium due to accumulation of uremic toxins, is a serious complication of renal failure. - It is an absolute indication for **hemodialysis** to prevent further cardiac complications like cardiac tamponade. *Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L* - Severe **hyperkalemia** (typically > 6.0-6.5 mEq/L) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that can cause cardiac arrhythmias. - **Hemodialysis** is highly effective in rapidly removing potassium from the body and is an absolute indication, especially if unresponsive to other medical therapies.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?

Syndactyly. ***Syndactyly*** - **Syndactyly** (fusion of digits) is a congenital anomaly and is **not** a typical feature of scleroderma. - Scleroderma primarily involves **fibrosis** and vascular changes, leading to skin thickening, not digit fusion [1]. *Decrease in tone of LES* - A **decrease in tone of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** is a common gastrointestinal manifestation of scleroderma. - This leads to **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** and related symptoms due to smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis. *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - **Restrictive cardiomyopathy** can occur in scleroderma due to **myocardial fibrosis**, leading to impaired diastolic filling. - This is a serious cardiac complication that can cause **heart failure**. *Halitosis* - **Halitosis** (bad breath) can be an indirect manifestation of scleroderma, often associated with severe **GERD**. - Impaired esophageal motility and reflux are common in scleroderma and can contribute to dental problems and **oral dysbiosis**, which can cause halitosis.

Q: A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?

Early Revascularization with PCI. ***Early Revascularization with PCI*** - The patient presents with **NSTEMI** (ST depression, elevated troponins) and is already on antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. **Early revascularization** (ideally within 24 hours for high-risk NSTEMI) is indicated to restore blood flow and prevent further myocardial damage [1]. - Given the patient's history of prior **PCI** and the current NSTEMI presentation, this suggests possible **in-stent restenosis** or progression of coronary artery disease, making revascularization crucial. *Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG* - While initial conservative management with medications is appropriate, simply continuing monitoring without definitive intervention is insufficient for a **high-risk NSTEMI** patient. - The elevated troponins and ST depression indicate ongoing myocardial injury that requires active management beyond just observation [1]. *Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up* - This approach is entirely inappropriate for a patient presenting with an **acute coronary syndrome (NSTEMI)**. - Outpatient follow-up is for stable conditions, not for an ongoing cardiac event that requires urgent hospital-based intervention. *Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography* - **Immediate revascularization** (within 90 minutes) is primarily indicated for **STEMI** (ST elevation myocardial infarction). - While coronary angiography will precede PCI, the term "immediate" in this context usually refers to the urgency seen in STEMI; NSTEMI typically warrants "early" rather than "immediate" intervention (within 12-24 hours for high-risk patients like this one) [1].

Q: What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?

Rebreathing in paper bag. ***Rebreathing in paper bag*** - This helps to **increase the inspired CO2 concentration**, thereby correcting the hypocapnia (low CO2) caused by hyperventilation. - It's a simple, non-invasive method to raise arterial PCO2 and normalize blood pH in acute respiratory alkalosis. *IPPV* - **Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)** would further reduce CO2 by assisting ventilation and is typically used for respiratory *acidosis* or failure [1]. - This intervention would worsen the patient's respiratory alkalosis rather than alleviating it. *Normal saline* - **Normal saline** administration is primarily used for volume expansion or to correct electrolyte imbalances; it does not directly address respiratory alkalosis. - It would not correct the underlying issue of excessive CO2 exhalation. *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces bicarbonate reabsorption and is used to treat metabolic alkalosis or as a diuretic. - It would not be an immediate or appropriate solution for acute respiratory alkalosis and might even worsen the acid-base balance if used improperly.

Q: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

Aneurysm. ***Aneurysm*** - Aneurysms, particularly **saccular** or **berry aneurysms**, are the most frequent cause of **spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**, accounting for about 80-85% of cases [2]. - The sudden rupture of an intracranial aneurysm leads to blood spilling into the **subarachnoid space**, causing characteristic symptoms like a "thunderclap headache" [1]. *Arterio-venous malformation* - While AV malformations (AVMs) can cause SAH, they are a less common cause than aneurysms, accounting for approximately 5-10% of cases. - AVMs are abnormal direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the capillary system and can rupture, leading to SAH or intraparenchymal hemorrhage. *Cavernous angioma* - Cavernous angiomas are abnormal clusters of dilated, thin-walled capillaries that can lead to hemorrhage, but they primarily cause **intraparenchymal hemorrhage** rather than SAH. - They are much less likely to result in diffuse bleeding into the subarachnoid space compared to ruptured aneurysms. *Hypertension* - Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the formation and rupture of aneurysms [1], but it is not a direct cause of SAH itself in the same way an aneurysm rupture is. - While uncontrolled hypertension is often associated with **intracerebral hemorrhage** (bleeding within the brain tissue), its direct role in causing SAH is usually secondary to an underlying vascular abnormality like an aneurysm.

Q: What is the recommended time frame for completing a blood transfusion after initiation?

1-4 hours. ***1-4 hours*** - This timeframe is recommended to **minimize the risk of bacterial growth** in the blood product, as bacteria can multiply quickly at room temperature. - Completing the transfusion within 4 hours also reduces the likelihood of **red blood cell degeneration** and loss of efficacy. *3-6 hours* - This period extends beyond the recommended maximum of 4 hours, increasing the risk of **bacterial proliferation** in the blood product. - Prolonged infusion times can also lead to a **decrease in the viability and function** of transfused cells. *4-8 hours* - Transfusing over 4-8 hours significantly elevates the risk of **bacterial contamination** and potential septic reactions. - The extended duration compromises the **quality and safety** of the blood product. *8-12 hours* - This timeframe is unacceptably long for a blood transfusion, posing a **critical risk of severe bacterial growth** and infection. - Blood products should not be administered beyond 4 hours due to the rapid decline in **cell integrity and increased adverse reaction potential**.

Question 1

Impotence is a feature of which of the following:

Accepted Answer

Multiple sclerosis

Answer

Poliomyelitis

Answer

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer

Meningitis

Question 2

All of the following are features of Obstructive jaundice except:

Accepted Answer

Normal alkaline phosphatase

Answer

Clay colour stools

Answer

Pruritis

Answer

Elevated serum aminotransferases level

Question 3

Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Accepted Answer

Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL)

Answer

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Answer

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer

T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia

Question 4

What is Reifenstein syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome due to receptor mutation.

Answer

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome with female external genitalia

Answer

5-alpha reductase deficiency causing ambiguous genitalia

Answer

Gonadal dysgenesis with streak gonads

Question 5

Which of the following is not an absolute indication for hemodialysis?

Accepted Answer

GI bleeding

Answer

Convulsions

Answer

Pericarditis

Answer

Hyperkalemia of 6.5 mEq/L

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma?

Accepted Answer

Syndactyly

Answer

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Answer

Halitosis

Answer

Decrease in tone of LES

Question 7

A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with central chest pain for 2 hours. The ECG shows ST segment depression and cardiac troponins are elevated. The patient has a positive history of previous PCI 3 months back. He is administered Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates, and LMWH in the Emergency Department and shifted to the coronary care unit. What is the best recommended course of further action?

Accepted Answer

Early Revascularization with PCI

Answer

Continue conservative management and monitoring of cardiac enzymes and ECG

Answer

Continue conservative management and plan for outpatient follow-up

Answer

Immediate Revascularization with Coronary Angiography

Question 8

What is the best immediate management strategy for a patient experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety-induced hyperventilation?

Accepted Answer

Rebreathing in paper bag

Answer

IPPV

Answer

Normal saline

Answer

Acetazolamide

Question 9

The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

Accepted Answer

Aneurysm

Answer

Arterio-venous malformation

Answer

Cavernous angioma

Answer

Hypertension

Question 10

What is the recommended time frame for completing a blood transfusion after initiation?

Accepted Answer

1-4 hours

Answer

3-6 hours

Answer

4-8 hours

Answer

8-12 hours

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine