NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A 40-year-old male with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is found to have Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia on endoscopy. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?

PPI. ***PPI*** - In patients with **GERD** and **low-grade dysplasia**, high-dose **proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are the initial treatment of choice to suppress acid reflux. - Continuous acid suppression can help in the regression of dysplasia and prevent its progression to higher grades. *Fundoplication* - **Fundoplication** is a surgical procedure to treat severe GERD, but it is not the primary initial treatment for low-grade dysplasia. - It might be considered if medical therapy with PPIs fails or if there are significant anatomical defects. *Esophageal resection* - **Esophageal resection** is a major surgical procedure typically reserved for **high-grade dysplasia** or **esophageal adenocarcinoma**. - It is an overly aggressive and unnecessary intervention for initial management of low-grade dysplasia. *Diet modification* - **Diet modification** is an important adjunctive therapy for GERD symptoms and overall gastric health. - However, it is generally insufficient as a standalone initial treatment for documented **low-grade dysplasia** without concurrent pharmacotherapy.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic finding in distal RTA?

Hypercalciuria. ***Hypercalciuria*** - **Hypercalciuria** is a characteristic finding in distal RTA (Type 1), leading to increased calcium in the urine. - This occurs due to reduced **distal tubular reabsorption of calcium** and increased bone resorption from chronic acidosis. *Urine pH 5.5** [1]. - A urine pH < 5.5 would suggest a normal kidney response to systemic acidosis, ruling out distal RTA. *Hypokalemia* - While hypokalemia can occur in distal RTA, it is not always present and is not the most definitive characteristic finding. - **Hypokalemia** is more characteristic of Type 1 RTA due to increased potassium excretion in an attempt to excrete H+ ions. *Nephrolithiasis* - **Nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones) is a common complication of distal RTA due to hypercalciuria and alkaline urine [2]. - However, hypercalciuria is the *reason* for the increased risk of nephrolithiasis, making it a more fundamental characteristic finding.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?

CCF. ***CCF*** - **Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)** is generally **not a primary feature** or common complication of Refsum disease. While some cardiac abnormalities can occur, severe CCF is rare. - Refsum disease is characterized by the accumulation of **phytanic acid**, which primarily affects the nervous system, skin, and eyes. *Ataxia* - **Cerebellar ataxia** is a very common and prominent neurological symptom in Refsum disease, due to damage to the cerebellum. - Patients often present with **unsteady gait and poor coordination**. *Ichthyosis* - **Ichthyosis** (dry, scaly skin) is a characteristic dermatological manifestation of Refsum disease, occurring in nearly all patients. - It is caused by the disruption of **lipid metabolism** in the skin due to phytanic acid accumulation. *Retinitis pigmentosa* - **Retinitis pigmentosa** is one of the classic ocular features of Refsum disease, leading to **night blindness** and progressive **visual field loss**. - It involves the degeneration of photoreceptor cells in the retina.

Q: All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:

Brain. ***Brain*** - The **brain** is not a common site for primary bone metastasis, as bone metastases typically originate from organs like the **breast**, **lung**, and **prostate**. - While brain tumors can metastasize to bone, the reverse (primary bone cancer) occurring here is rare. *Breast* - Breast cancer is one of the **most prevalent sources** of bone metastases, commonly affecting the spine and pelvis. - Symptoms often include **bone pain** and potential fractures due to metastasis. *Brain* - Similar to , while brain tumors can metastasize, **primary cancers** do not commonly originate in the bone. - The **metastatic spread** to the brain from other primary sites is common, but not the other way around. *Breast* - Again, breast cancer commonly leads to **bone metastasis**, accounting for a significant percentage of these cases. - It is important to identify busy metastasis to **manage** symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

Q: A female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **Hirsutism**, **amenorrhea** (or oligomenorrhea), and **obesity** are classic clinical features of PCOS, reflecting hyperandrogenism and insulin resistance [2]. - PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion and involves chronic anovulation and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound [3], though these are not explicitly mentioned, the constellation of symptoms strongly points to it. *Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor* - While it can cause **hirsutism** and **amenorrhea**, the onset is typically **rapid** and severe, with very high androgen levels, and obesity is not a primary feature. - Ovarian tumors are generally less common than PCOS and may present with a palpable mass or specific imaging findings. *Congenital adrenal hyperplasia* - This genetic condition often presents in childhood or adolescence with varying degrees of **virilization** and menstrual irregularities due to enzyme deficiencies in cortisol synthesis [1]. - While it causes **hirsutism** and potentially **amenorrhea**, obesity is not a direct consequence, and the patient's age of presentation and specific symptom pattern are less typical for adult-onset CAH in this context. *Cushing's syndrome* - Characterized by **central obesity**, **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, **striae**, and proximal muscle weakness due to chronic glucocorticoid excess. - Although it can cause **menstrual irregularities** and mild **hirsutism** [2], the overall clinical picture including the absence of other specific Cushingoid features makes it less likely than PCOS.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

Perforated nasal septum. ***Perforated nasal septum*** - **Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)**, previously known as **Wegener's granulomatosis**, is characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** and **vasculitis** of small to medium-sized vessels, particularly affecting the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the kidneys [1]. - Damage to the nasal cartilage and bone due to inflammation and vasculitis can lead to a **perforation of the nasal septum**, which is a classic feature. *Nasal polyp* - While nasal polyps can occur in inflammatory conditions, they are **not a specific or highly characteristic feature** of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis compared to septal perforation. - **Allergic rhinitis** or **chronic rhinosinusitis** are more commonly associated with nasal polyps. *Persistent sinusitis* - **Persistent sinusitis** (rhinosinusitis) is a very common initial manifestation of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to upper airway inflammation. - However, it's a **less specific finding** than a perforated septum, as sinusitis can be caused by many other conditions. *Collapse of nasal bridge* - **Collapse of the nasal bridge**, also known as a **saddle nose deformity**, can occur in advanced or destructive cases of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to extensive cartilage and bone destruction. - While possible, a **perforated nasal septum often precedes** or is a more direct, earlier indicator of the destructive process in the nose.

Q: Match stick test is positive in ?

Leprosy. ***Leprosy*** - The **matchstick test** is a simple neurological examination used to detect **nerve damage** in leprosy, specifically **sensory loss** [1]. - A positive test indicates the patient cannot perceive the touch or pain from a matchstick, commonly due to damage to superficial nerves caused by *Mycobacterium leprae* [1]. *Rhinophyma* - This condition is characterized by **sebaceous gland hypertrophy** and **fibrosis** of the nose, often associated with rosacea. - It does not involve nerve damage or sensory loss that would be assessed by a matchstick test. *Rhinoscleroma* - Rhinoscleroma is a **chronic granulomatous bacterial infection** of the upper respiratory tract. - While it causes significant tissue destruction and structural changes, it is not primarily associated with the sensory neuropathies that the matchstick test evaluates. *P. vesticolor* - *Pityriasis versicolor* is a **superficial fungal infection** of the skin, causing discolored patches. - This condition is a dermatological issue and does not involve nerve damage or sensory deficits, making the matchstick test irrelevant.

Q: In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

CT angiography. ***CT angiography*** - In a patient with **high clinical suspicion** of pulmonary embolism (PE), CT angiography of the pulmonary arteries is the preferred and often definitive diagnostic test. - It allows for direct visualization of thrombi within the pulmonary arterial tree with high sensitivity and specificity. *D-dimer* - While useful for **ruling out PE** in patients with low or intermediate pre-test probability, a positive D-dimer is non-specific and requires further investigation in high-suspicion cases. - It has a high **negative predictive value** but a low positive predictive value, meaning a normal D-dimer makes PE unlikely, but an elevated one does not confirm it. *Catheter angiography* - This is an **invasive procedure** that is typically reserved for cases where CT angiography is inconclusive or contraindicated, or when interventional treatment is contemplated. - It carries risks such as **bleeding** and **contrast-induced nephropathy**, making it less appropriate as a first-line diagnostic in most situations. *Color Doppler* - Color Doppler ultrasound is primarily used to diagnose **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** in the lower extremities, which is a common source of PE. - It is **not used to directly diagnose PE** in the pulmonary arteries; however, finding a DVT can support the diagnosis of PE indirectly.

Q: Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?

Crohn's disease. ***Crohn's disease*** - Wireless capsule endoscopy is primarily used to visualize the **small bowel**, which is the main site of involvement in Crohn's disease [3]. - It helps detect **mucosal inflammation**, ulcers, and strictures that may not be accessible by conventional endoscopy [1]. *Esophageal varices* - **Esophageal varices** are best visualized and treated with conventional **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)**, which allows for direct intervention [2]. - Capsule endoscopy is not the preferred method due to its inability to adequately distend the esophagus or perform therapeutic maneuvers [4]. *Gastric carcinoma* - Diagnosing **gastric carcinoma** requires visualization of the stomach lining, typically achieved through **conventional upper endoscopy** with biopsies [2]. - The capsule may pass too quickly through the stomach or miss subtle lesions, and it cannot obtain tissue samples. *Ulcerative colitis* - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the **colon**, which is visualized using a **colonoscopy** [3]. - While capsule endoscopy can visualize the small bowel, it is not effective for examining the colon due to insufficient imaging of the entire large intestine and lack of biopsy capabilities.

Q: Refer to the provided ECG image. It demonstrates which of the following?

Ventricular fibrillation (VF). ***Ventricular fibrillation (VF)*** - The ECG shows a chaotic, **irregular electrical activity** with no distinguishable P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves. - This disorganized electrical pattern is characteristic of VF, indicating a severe cardiac emergency. *Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)* - SVT is characterized by a **rapid, regular rhythm** with narrow QRS complexes, which are absent in this chaotic tracing. - While fast, SVT typically maintains some degree of organized electrical activity, unlike the provided ECG. *Atrial fibrillation (AF)* - AF presents with irregularly irregular rhythm and **absent P waves**, but it still has identifiable **narrow QRS complexes**. - The provided ECG lacks any discernible QRS complexes, making AF an unlikely diagnosis. *Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome* - WPW syndrome is characterized by a **short PR interval** and a **delta wave** on the ECG due to an accessory pathway. - It involves an organized rhythm, although it can predispose to tachyarrhythmias, and doesn't present as the chaotic rhythm shown.

Question 1

A 40-year-old male with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is found to have Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia on endoscopy. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?

Accepted Answer

PPI

Answer

Fundoplication

Answer

Esophageal resection

Answer

Diet modification

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in distal RTA?

Accepted Answer

Hypercalciuria

Answer

Urine pH < 5.5

Answer

Hypokalemia

Answer

Nephrolithiasis

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?

Accepted Answer

CCF

Answer

Retinitis pigmentosa

Answer

Ataxia

Answer

Ichthyosis

Question 4

All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:

Accepted Answer

Brain

Answer

Prostate

Answer

Lung

Answer

Thyroid

Question 5

A female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

Answer

Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor

Answer

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Answer

Cushing's syndrome

Question 6

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

Accepted Answer

Perforated nasal septum

Answer

Nasal polyp

Answer

Persistent sinusitis

Answer

Collapse of nasal bridge

Question 7

Match stick test is positive in ?

Accepted Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Rhinophyma

Answer

P. versicolor

Answer

Rhinoscleroma

Question 8

In a patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?

Accepted Answer

CT angiography

Answer

D-dimer

Answer

Catheter angiography

Answer

Color Doppler

Question 9

Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?

Accepted Answer

Crohn's disease

Answer

Esophageal varices

Answer

Gastric carcinoma

Answer

Ulcerative colitis

Question 10

Refer to the provided ECG image. It demonstrates which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

Answer

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

Answer

Atrial fibrillation (AF)

Answer

Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine