Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
Reducing equivalents produced in glycolysis are transported from cytosol to mitochondria by ?
Which of the following is an aldose?
Phosphofructokinase-1 occupies a key position in regulating glycolysis and is also subjected to feedback control. Which among the following are the allosteric activators of phosphofructokinase-1?
All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
Which nut has the highest protein content among the following options?
What is the iron requirement for a normal menstruating adult female?
What is the role of Anandamide in the human body?
Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is due to deficiency of?
- A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
- B. UMP synthase (Correct Answer)
- C. Orotic acid decarboxylase
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***UMP synthase*** - Hereditary orotic aciduria Type-I is caused by a deficiency of the **bifunctional enzyme UMP synthase** (also called UMP synthase complex). - UMP synthase catalyzes two sequential reactions in the *de novo* pyrimidine synthesis pathway: 1. **OPRT activity**: Converts orotate → orotidine 5'-monophosphate (OMP) 2. **ODC activity**: Converts OMP → uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP) - This is the **most precise and complete answer** as it identifies the actual enzyme complex that is deficient. - **Clinical features**: Megaloblastic anemia, growth retardation, immunodeficiency; responds to oral uridine supplementation. *Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase* - This represents only **one of the two catalytic activities** of the UMP synthase enzyme (the first step). - While this activity is indeed deficient in Type-I orotic aciduria, naming only this activity is **incomplete** because the enzyme has two functions. - This would be a **partial answer** rather than the complete enzyme name. *Orotic acid decarboxylase* - This represents only **the second catalytic activity** of the UMP synthase enzyme (converts OMP to UMP). - Like OPRT, this activity is also deficient, but naming only this component is **incomplete**. - **Type II orotic aciduria** (extremely rare) involves isolated ODC deficiency without OPRT deficiency. *All of the options* - While technically both OPRT and ODC activities are affected in Type-I orotic aciduria, the **standard nomenclature** refers to the deficient enzyme as **"UMP synthase"** - the name of the complete bifunctional enzyme. - In medical terminology and examination context, we identify enzyme deficiencies by the **name of the enzyme complex**, not by listing all its individual catalytic activities. - Therefore, **"UMP synthase"** is the single most accurate and complete answer.
Question 112: Which of the following molecular interactions are found in the structure of DNA?
- A. Hydrogen bond
- B. Glycosidic bond
- C. Covalent interactions
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All three types of molecular interactions listed are present in DNA structure, making this the correct answer. - **Hydrogen bonds** hold together the two strands of the DNA double helix, forming between complementary base pairs (A-T with 2 hydrogen bonds, G-C with 3 hydrogen bonds). - **Glycosidic bonds** (N-glycosidic bonds) link the nitrogenous bases to the C1' carbon of the deoxyribose sugar in each nucleotide. - **Covalent interactions** (phosphodiester bonds) form the strong, stable sugar-phosphate backbone by linking the 3' hydroxyl group of one sugar to the 5' phosphate group of the next. *Hydrogen bond* - This is a **true statement** - hydrogen bonds are essential structural components of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA structure also contains glycosidic bonds and covalent phosphodiester bonds. - If only hydrogen bonds were present, there would be no nucleotides or backbone structure. *Glycosidic bond* - This is a **true statement** - glycosidic bonds are present in every nucleotide of DNA. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as DNA also requires hydrogen bonds for base pairing and phosphodiester bonds for the backbone. - Without other bonds, individual nucleotides could not form a functional double helix. *Covalent interactions* - This is a **true statement** - covalent phosphodiester bonds form the DNA backbone within each strand. - However, this option alone is **incomplete** as it doesn't account for glycosidic bonds (nucleotide formation) or hydrogen bonds (strand pairing). - While the strongest bonds in DNA, they alone cannot create the complete double helix structure.
Question 113: Reducing equivalents produced in glycolysis are transported from cytosol to mitochondria by ?
- A. Carnitine
- B. Creatine
- C. Malate-aspartate shuttle (Correct Answer)
- D. Glutamate shuttle
Explanation: ***Malate shuttle*** - The **malate-aspartate shuttle** is a primary mechanism for transporting **NADH reducing equivalents** from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix for **oxidative phosphorylation**. - It involves a series of **enzymes and transporters** that indirectly move electrons from NADH by converting **oxaloacetate to malate** in the cytosol, which then enters the mitochondria. *Carnitine* - **Carnitine** is primarily involved in the transport of **long-chain fatty acids** into the mitochondrial matrix for **beta-oxidation**. - It is not directly involved in the shuttle of NADH reducing equivalents generated during glycolysis. *Creatine* - **Creatine** and its phosphorylated form, **phosphocreatine**, are crucial for **energy buffering and transport** in tissues with high and fluctuating energy demands, like muscle and brain. - The creatine-phosphocreatine shuttle facilitates the rapid regeneration of ATP, but it is not involved in transporting glycolytic reducing equivalents. *Glutamate shuttle* - While glutamate and aspartate are components of the **malate-aspartate shuttle**, there isn't a standalone "glutamate shuttle" for transporting glycolytic reducing equivalents. - The **glutamate-aspartate transaminase** is an enzyme within the malate-aspartate shuttle, converting oxaloacetate to aspartate and alpha-ketoglutarate to glutamate from the matrix to the cytosol.
Question 114: Which of the following is an aldose?
- A. Fructose
- B. Erythrulose
- C. Glucose (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Glucose*** - An **aldose** is a monosaccharide containing an **aldehyde group** (—CHO) in its open-chain form. - **Glucose** possesses an aldehyde group at carbon-1 and is therefore classified as an aldose. *Fructose* - **Fructose** is a **ketose**, meaning it contains a **ketone group** (C=O) in its open-chain structure, typically at carbon-2. - While it is a monosaccharide, its functional group differentiates it from aldoses. *Erythrulose* - **Erythrulose** is a **ketotetrose**, meaning it is a four-carbon sugar with a **ketone group**. - Unlike aldoses, which have an aldehyde group, erythrulose's defining characteristic is its ketone functional group. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Glucose** is indeed an aldose, fitting the definition of having an aldehyde functional group. - Therefore, there is a correct option provided among the choices.
Question 115: Phosphofructokinase-1 occupies a key position in regulating glycolysis and is also subjected to feedback control. Which among the following are the allosteric activators of phosphofructokinase-1?
- A. 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)
- B. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (Correct Answer)
- C. Glucokinase
- D. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Explanation: ***Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate*** - **Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate** is a potent **allosteric activator** of **phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)**, increasing its affinity for fructose 6-phosphate and overcoming ATP inhibition. - Its synthesis is regulated by **insulin** (stimulating) and **glucagon** (inhibiting), linking glucose availability to glycolytic flux. *2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)* - **2,3-BPG** is an important regulator of **hemoglobin oxygen affinity** in red blood cells. - It is not an allosteric activator of **PFK-1**; its primary role is in oxygen delivery. *Glucokinase* - **Glucokinase** is an **enzyme** in glycolysis, specifically catalyzing the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in the liver and pancreatic beta cells. - It is not an allosteric activator of **PFK-1** but rather an upstream enzyme in the pathway. *Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)* - **PEP** is an intermediate in glycolysis, formed from 2-phosphoglycerate and converted to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase. - It acts as an **allosteric inhibitor** of phosphofructokinase-1, signaling high energy status and slowing down glycolysis.
Question 116: All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
- A. Niacin
- B. Energy
- C. Iron (Correct Answer)
- D. Vitamin A
Explanation: ***Iron*** - **Iron requirements are significantly higher during pregnancy** (~27 mg/day) due to the expansion of maternal red blood cell mass, fetal development, and placental iron needs. - During lactation, iron requirement decreases to **~9-10 mg/day**, lower than in pregnancy, as **lactational amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) reduces iron loss. - This represents the **most significant decrease** in requirement from pregnancy to lactation among the listed nutrients. *Vitamin A* - The **recommended daily allowance (RDA) for Vitamin A is higher during lactation** (~1300 μg/day) compared to pregnancy (~800 μg/day). - This increased requirement ensures **adequate transfer to breast milk** to support infant's **vision development and immune function**. *Niacin* - **Niacin requirements during lactation** (~17 mg/day) are **similar to pregnancy** (~18 mg/day). - While lactation involves increased metabolic demands, niacin requirements do not show a marked increase compared to pregnancy, unlike Vitamin A and Energy. - This option is less clearly "required more" during lactation. *Energy* - **Energy requirements are significantly higher during lactation** to fuel milk production, which is energetically demanding. - A lactating woman typically needs an **additional 500 kcal/day**, compared to ~300 kcal/day in the 2nd/3rd trimester of pregnancy.
Question 117: Which nut has the highest protein content among the following options?
- A. Walnut
- B. Coconut
- C. Groundnut (Correct Answer)
- D. Almond
Explanation: ***Groundnut*** - **Groundnuts** (peanuts) contain approximately **26 grams of protein per 100 grams**, which is the highest among the given options. - While botanically classified as legumes, groundnuts are commonly grouped with nuts in nutritional contexts. - They are also rich in **healthy fats**, **fiber**, and various **B vitamins**. *Almond* - **Almonds** contain about **21 grams of protein per 100 grams**, making them the second highest in protein content among the options. - They are excellent sources of **vitamin E**, **magnesium**, and **healthy monounsaturated fats**. *Walnut* - **Walnuts** contain approximately **15 grams of protein per 100 grams**, which is lower than both groundnuts and almonds. - They are notably rich in **omega-3 fatty acids** (alpha-linolenic acid). *Coconut* - **Coconut flesh** has relatively low protein content, around **3.3 grams per 100 grams**. - It is primarily known for its high content of **medium-chain triglycerides** and **saturated fats**.
Question 118: What is the iron requirement for a normal menstruating adult female?
- A. 30 mg/day
- B. 35 mg/day
- C. 20 mg/day
- D. 15 mg/day (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***15 mg/day*** - The recommended daily iron intake for a normal menstruating adult female was **15 mg/day** according to guidelines at the time of this examination (NEET-2013). - This higher requirement compared to males and post-menopausal women is due to **iron loss in menstrual blood**, averaging approximately **0.5-1 mg/day** additional iron loss. - **Note:** Current guidelines recommend **18 mg/day** (US RDA) or **21 mg/day** (ICMR, India), but this question reflects the 2013 standard. *20 mg/day* - This amount is **higher than the typical recommendation** for healthy menstruating women without significant pathology. - While some women with heavier menstrual bleeding might require this, it's not the baseline requirement for normal menstruation. *30 mg/day* - This intake level is typically recommended for **pregnant women** in the second and third trimesters or individuals with **diagnosed iron deficiency anemia** requiring therapeutic supplementation. - It is significantly more than the daily requirement for a healthy menstruating female. *35 mg/day* - This is an **excessively high** daily iron intake for a healthy menstruating female. - Such high doses are usually prescribed for **severe iron deficiency anemia** or specific medical conditions under supervision. - Chronic intake at this level without medical indication could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Question 119: What is the role of Anandamide in the human body?
- A. Opioid
- B. D2 blocker
- C. Cannabinoid neurotransmitter (Correct Answer)
- D. CCK1 antagonist
Explanation: ***Cannabinoid neurotransmitter*** - **Anandamide** is an **endogenous cannabinoid neurotransmitter** that binds to **CB1** and **CB2 receptors**. - It plays a role in **pain modulation**, **appetite stimulation**, and **memory regulation**. *Opioid* - **Opioids** bind to **opioid receptors** (mu, delta, kappa) and are known for their **analgesic** and **euphoric effects**. - Examples include **morphine** and **endorphins**, which are chemically distinct from anandamide and have different receptor targets. *CK 1 antagonist* - This option refers to a **cholecystokinin 1 (CCK1) receptor antagonist**, which would block the effects of **CCK**. - **CCK** is a hormone involved in **digestion** and **satiety**, and its role is unrelated to anandamide. *D2 blocker* - A **D2 blocker** is an agent that antagonizes the **dopamine D2 receptor**. - These are typically **antipsychotic medications** that modulate **dopamine pathways** in the brain, unrelated to the function of anandamide.
Question 120: Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by ?
- A. Simultaneous ingestion of lactose
- B. Simultaneous ingestion of phytates (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Acidic environment
Explanation: ***Simultaneous ingestion of phytates*** - **Phytates (phytic acid)** found in whole grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes can **reduce the clinical effect of vitamin D** through multiple mechanisms - Phytates **chelate calcium** and form insoluble calcium-phytate complexes, reducing calcium absorption - Since **vitamin D and calcium metabolism are closely linked**, impaired calcium absorption indirectly reduces vitamin D efficacy - Phytates can also **directly bind to vitamin D** in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing its bioavailability - Studies show that **high phytate intake increases vitamin D requirements** and can impair vitamin D status *Simultaneous ingestion of lactose* - Lactose does **not reduce** vitamin D absorption or efficacy - In fact, **dairy products are commonly fortified** with vitamin D, and the presence of lactose does not interfere with its beneficial effects - Lactose may actually **enhance calcium absorption**, which works synergistically with vitamin D *Acidic environment* - Vitamin D is a **fat-soluble vitamin** absorbed primarily in the small intestine - An acidic environment (stomach acid) is **not known to inhibit** vitamin D absorption - The absorption process occurs in the **alkaline environment of the small intestine** where fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed with dietary fats *None of the options* - This is **incorrect** as phytates do reduce the clinical effect of vitamin D through calcium chelation and direct binding mechanisms