INI-CET 2023 - Surgery PYQs Practice Questions

Q: A 30-year-old male undergoes varicocele surgery to correct his left-sided varicocele. Following the procedure, the surgeon explains the postoperative changes to the patient. The patient asks, "Through which route does the venous drainage primarily occur after the surgery?" Which of the following is the correct response by the surgeon?

Cremasteric and deferential veins. ***Cremasteric and deferential veins*** - After varicocele surgery, the **internal spermatic veins** (pampiniform plexus) are ligated or embolized, eliminating the primary drainage route. - Venous drainage then shifts to **collateral pathways**: the **cremasteric veins** (which drain to the inferior epigastric vein) and the **deferential/vasal veins** (which drain to the vesical venous plexus). - These provide adequate alternative venous outflow from the testis, preventing venous congestion post-operatively. - This is a well-established anatomical principle in varicocele surgery. *Penile veins* - Penile veins primarily drain the **penis** itself (corpus cavernosum and spongiosum), not the testis. - They are anatomically distinct from the testicular venous drainage system and do not serve as a collateral route after varicocele repair. *Ectopic drainage in the iliac fossa* - This is not a recognized anatomical pathway for testicular venous drainage. - While cremasteric veins eventually drain to the external iliac system via inferior epigastric veins, referring to this as "ectopic drainage in the iliac fossa" is anatomically imprecise and not standard terminology. *At the usual location* - The usual pre-operative drainage is through the **pampiniform plexus → internal spermatic vein** (left side drains to left renal vein, right side to IVC). - This is the pathway that is **surgically interrupted** during varicocele repair (ligation or embolization). - Post-operatively, drainage cannot occur at this location as these vessels are deliberately occluded. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with dull aching pain and tortuous veins in both lower limbs. Which test would be appropriate for evaluating saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) incompetence?

Brodie Trendelenburg test. ***Brodie Trendelenburg test*** - This test evaluates **venous valve competence** at the saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) by observing the rate of venous refilling after emptying the superficial veins in the supine position and then standing. - Quick refilling of veins upon standing, particularly after compression of the SFJ, suggests **SFJ incompetence**. *Fegan's test* - This test is used to locate **incompetent perforating veins** by palpating for defects in the fascia after emptying the veins and applying compression. - It does not directly assess the competence of the saphenofemoral junction. *Modified Perthes test* - The Perthes test assesses the **patency of deep veins** and the competence of perforating veins by observing the disappearance of superficial veins during exercise with a tourniquet applied. - It primarily differentiates between superficial and deep venous insufficiency, not specifically SFJ incompetence. *Morrissey test* - This test (also known as the percussion test) involves percussing an incompetent vein distally and palpating proximally to detect a transmitted thrill, indicating **venous incompetence**. - While it helps identify reflux, it is less specific for SFJ incompetence compared to the Brodie Trendelenburg test. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is not a known complication associated with the procedure done in the patient?

Refeeding. ***Refeeding*** - The image shows a **central venous catheter (CVC)**, likely in the internal jugular vein. While CVCs are used for administering nutrition such as **total parenteral nutrition (TPN)**, refeeding syndrome is a metabolic complication that occurs when nutrition is reintroduced too quickly in severely malnourished patients. - **Refeeding syndrome is NOT a direct complication of the CVC insertion procedure itself**—it is a systemic metabolic complication related to the nutritional intervention (characterized by severe shifts in fluids and electrolytes, particularly hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia). - Therefore, refeeding is **not associated with the procedure** of CVC insertion. *Pneumothorax* - **Pneumothorax** is a well-recognized mechanical complication of central venous catheterization, particularly with subclavian and internal jugular vein approaches. - Occurs due to accidental puncture of the **pleura** during needle insertion, allowing air to enter the pleural space and causing lung collapse. - Incidence ranges from 1-6% depending on the site and operator experience. *Arrhythmia* - **Cardiac arrhythmias** are a known complication during CVC insertion when the guidewire or catheter tip inadvertently advances too far into the heart chambers (right atrium or ventricle). - Mechanical irritation of the myocardium can trigger **premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)** or other arrhythmias. - Usually transient and resolve upon withdrawing the catheter to proper position. *Aspiration* - While **aspiration** can occur in critically ill patients who require CVCs (due to altered consciousness, dysphagia, or ventilator-associated issues), it is **not a direct mechanical complication of the CVC insertion procedure itself**. - Aspiration relates to patient condition rather than the catheter placement technique, though both may coexist in the same clinical scenario. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 53-year-old patient presents with per rectal bleeding. Which is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate for colorectal pathology?

Colonoscopy. ***Colonoscopy*** - **Gold standard investigation** for per rectal bleeding and suspected colorectal pathology - Allows **direct visualization** of the entire colon and rectum - Enables **biopsy** of any suspicious lesions for histopathological diagnosis - Can identify various causes: **polyps, diverticula, inflammatory bowel disease, and colorectal cancer** - Therapeutic potential for polypectomy during the same procedure *CECT (Contrast-enhanced CT scan)* - Can detect large masses and assess for metastasis but not the primary diagnostic tool - Does not allow direct visualization of the mucosa or biopsy capability - Not suitable for identifying subtle mucosal lesions or early pathology - May be used as an adjunct for staging after diagnosis *CA-19-9 levels* - Tumor marker primarily associated with **pancreatic cancer** - Not routinely used for diagnosis or screening of colorectal malignancies - Lacks sensitivity and specificity for colorectal pathology - Not appropriate as initial investigation for per rectal bleeding *CEA levels (Carcinoembryonic antigen)* - Tumor marker that can be elevated in colorectal cancer - Primarily used for **monitoring treatment response** and **detecting recurrence** - Not sensitive or specific enough for initial diagnosis - Cannot replace endoscopic evaluation for per rectal bleeding [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 45-year-old woman with early-stage breast cancer is discussing treatment options with her surgeon. Which of the following statements regarding breast conservation surgery is NOT true?

Axillary dissection. ***Axillary dissection*** - **Axillary dissection is NOT a routine component of breast conservation surgery** for early-stage breast cancer. - In early-stage disease, **sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB)** has largely replaced routine axillary dissection as it provides accurate staging with significantly less morbidity. - Axillary dissection is only performed when there is **proven extensive lymph node involvement** or when SLNB shows metastatic disease requiring further assessment. - Therefore, this statement is **NOT true** regarding routine breast conservation surgery. *Wide local excision* - **Wide local excision (lumpectomy)** is the primary surgical component of breast conservation therapy. - It involves removing the cancerous tumor along with a margin of healthy breast tissue to achieve clear margins while preserving the breast. *Sentinel lymph node biopsy* - **SLNB** is a standard procedure performed with breast conservation surgery to assess for regional lymph node metastasis. - It identifies and removes the first few lymph nodes draining the tumor, allowing accurate staging with minimal morbidity. *Post-operative radiotherapy* - **Post-operative radiotherapy** to the preserved breast is a critical and essential component of breast conservation therapy. - It significantly reduces the risk of local recurrence by treating any microscopic tumor cells that may remain after surgery. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

A 30-year-old male undergoes varicocele surgery to correct his left-sided varicocele. Following the procedure, the surgeon explains the postoperative changes to the patient. The patient asks, "Through which route does the venous drainage primarily occur after the surgery?" Which of the following is the correct response by the surgeon?

Accepted Answer

Cremasteric and deferential veins

Answer

Penile veins

Answer

Ectopic drainage in the iliac fossa

Answer

At the usual location

Question 2

A patient presents with dull aching pain and tortuous veins in both lower limbs. Which test would be appropriate for evaluating saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) incompetence?

Accepted Answer

Brodie Trendelenburg test

Answer

Fegan's test

Answer

Modified Perthes test

Answer

Morrissey test

Question 3

Which of the following is not a known complication associated with the procedure done in the patient?

Accepted Answer

Refeeding

Answer

Aspiration

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Arrhythmia

Question 4

A 53-year-old patient presents with per rectal bleeding. Which is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate for colorectal pathology?

Accepted Answer

Colonoscopy

Answer

CECT (Contrast-enhanced CT scan)

Answer

CA-19-9 levels

Answer

CEA levels

Question 5

A 45-year-old woman with early-stage breast cancer is discussing treatment options with her surgeon. Which of the following statements regarding breast conservation surgery is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

Axillary dissection

Answer

Post-operative radiotherapy

Answer

Wide local excision

Answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy

Question 6

A 55-year-old female smoker presents with a breast lump and is seeking medical evaluation. On examination, a palpable mass is detected in the breast. The patient's smoking history is significant, with a 30-year smoking habit. Which of the following conditions is strongly associated with smoking in relation to breast health?

Accepted Answer

Breast cancer

Answer

Duct ectasia

Answer

Fibroadenoma

Answer

Mondor disease

Question 7

What is the most likely diagnosis for the swelling in the floor of the mouth shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Ranula

Answer

Dermoid

Answer

Branchial cyst

Answer

Cystic hygroma

Question 8

After laparoscopic cholecystectomy what should be the urine output of the patient if the renal function of the patient is normal?

Accepted Answer

0.5-1 ml/kg/hr

Answer

0.5 ml/min

Answer

0.1 CC/hr

Answer

1 ml/kg/hr

Question 9

What is the baseline platelet count required for surgery?

Accepted Answer

50,000/µL (50 × 10^9/L)

Answer

40,000/µL (40 × 10^9/L)

Answer

20,000/µL (20 × 10^9/L)

Answer

30,000/µL (30 × 10^9/L)

Question 10

What is the likely diagnosis of the image given below?

Accepted Answer

Ranula

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

Mucocele

Answer

Ludwig angina

INI-CET 2023 — Surgery