INI-CET 2022 Practice Questions

Q: Fingerprint first develops in how many weeks of intrauterine life?

12-16. ***12-16*** - **Fingerprint patterns**, specifically the **friction ridges** on the fingers, begin to form between 12 and 16 weeks of gestation. - This period marks the development of the **dermal papillae** and epidermal ridges that create the unique patterns. *20-24* - By 20-24 weeks, the fingerprint patterns are already **well-established** and clearly visible. - This stage is beyond the initial developmental period when the patterns first emerge. *28-32* - At 28-32 weeks, the fingerprint patterns are **fully formed** and permanent. - This timeframe is too late for the initial development of these unique dermal features. *32-36* - By 32-36 weeks, the fetus is nearing full term, and the **fingerprint morphology** is complete and stable. - The initial formation process has long since concluded before this stage.

Q: A 7-year-old child presents to the dermatology clinic with multiple small, painless, flesh-colored papules on the trunk and arms that have been present for 3 months. The lesions are 2-4 mm in diameter, dome-shaped with a smooth surface, and several have a characteristic central umbilication. The child is otherwise healthy and immunocompetent. The lesions are not pruritic and there is no associated lymphadenopathy. On closer examination, a white, cheesy material can be expressed from the central depression of some lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Molluscum contagiosum. ***Molluscum contagiosum*** - The classic presentation of **flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules** with **central umbilication** is pathognomonic for molluscum contagiosum. - The presence of a **white, cheesy material** that can be expressed from the central depression is characteristic of the viral core. *Trichodysplasia spinulosa* - This condition presents with **follicular papules** and **spiny projections**, primarily on the face, and is typically seen in **immunocompromised** individuals. - The description of **flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules** with **umbilication** does not fit the typical presentation of trichodysplasia spinulosa. *Condyloma acuminata* - These are **genital warts** caused by HPV, typically presenting as **verrucous** or **cauliflower-like lesions** on the anogenital region. - The description of **small, painless, flesh-colored papules** with **central umbilication** on the trunk and arms is inconsistent with condyloma acuminata. *Donovanosis* - Donovanosis, or **granuloma inguinale**, is a rare bacterial infection causing **ulcerative lesions** in the genital and perianal areas. - This diagnosis is highly unlikely given the child's age, rash location (trunk and arms), and the specific morphology of the lesions.

Q: Post-mortem examination of a patient reveals the following. What is this finding known as?

Hesitation cuts. ***Hesitation cuts*** - The image displays multiple, parallel or semi-parallel **superficial incised wounds**, often with varying depths, which are characteristic of **hesitation cuts** (also called hesitation marks or tentative cuts). - These cuts are frequently observed in cases of **suicide attempts** where the individual makes several tentative or trial cuts before making a more serious or fatal wound. - Typically found on **wrists, neck, or antecubital fossa** and run parallel to each other with progressively increasing depth. - The pattern of multiple superficial parallel cuts is **pathognomonic** of hesitation marks. *Grazed abrasion* - A **grazed abrasion** is a superficial injury where the epidermis is scraped off, typically caused by friction against a rough surface, resulting in a broad, irregular area of skin loss. - The injuries in the image are clearly distinct **incised wounds** (clean cuts), not broad areas of scraped or abraded skin. *Defense wounds* - **Defense wounds** are injuries sustained while attempting to ward off an attack, typically found on the **palmar surface of hands and forearms**. - These are usually deeper, irregular cuts from grabbing or blocking a weapon during homicidal assault. - The pattern in the image shows **organized, parallel, superficial cuts** in one location, inconsistent with defensive injuries sustained during a struggle. *Chop wounds* - **Chop wounds** are deep incised wounds caused by heavy cutting instruments like axes, cleavers, or machetes, often with underlying **bone injury**. - These are characterized by **deep tissue damage** with a wedge-shaped wound profile. - The wounds shown are **superficial and parallel**, not deep chopping injuries.

Q: Treatment of choice for acute arsenic poisoning is:

Dimercaprol. ***Dimercaprol*** - **Dimercaprol** (also known as British Anti-Lewisite, BAL) is a chelating agent used for **acute arsenic poisoning**. [1] - It works by binding to arsenic, forming a stable, non-toxic complex that can be excreted from the body. - Among the given options, **dimercaprol is the correct choice** for treating acute arsenic poisoning. - **Note:** While dimercaprol is effective, newer chelators like **DMSA (succimer)** and **DMPS (unithiol)** are now preferred in modern practice due to better safety profiles and efficacy, though they are not listed in the options. [1] *Ipecac* - **Ipecac syrup** induces vomiting and is generally **contraindicated** in poisonings with corrosives, hydrocarbons, or substances that can cause rapid central nervous system depression. - It is **not effective** for systemic poisonings like arsenic, where absorption has already occurred, and can cause complications like aspiration. - Ipecac is largely obsolete in modern toxicology practice. *Penicillamine* - **Penicillamine** is another chelating agent, primarily used for **copper poisoning** (e.g., Wilson's disease) and sometimes for lead poisoning. - While it has some chelating properties, it is **less effective** than dimercaprol for acute arsenic toxicity and can have more significant side effects. - It is **not the first-line treatment** for arsenic poisoning. *Activated charcoal* - **Activated charcoal** is effective for adsorbing many toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. - However, it has **poor affinity for heavy metals** like arsenic and is therefore **not recommended** as the primary treatment for arsenic poisoning. - It may have limited benefit only if given very early after ingestion, but chelation therapy is the definitive treatment.

Q: Adrenocorticotropic hormone is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions?

West syndrome. ***West syndrome*** - **Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)** is considered the drug of choice for West syndrome, also known as infantile spasms, due to its efficacy in reducing spasm frequency and improving neurodevelopmental outcomes. - **Steroid therapy**, including ACTH, is thought to work by modulating cortisol levels and neurotransmitter activity, suppressing the abnormal brain activity characteristic of these seizures. *Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy* - The drug of choice for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is typically **valproate**, or newer antiepileptic drugs like levetiracetam or lamotrigine, known for their efficacy against myoclonic seizures. - ACTH is not used in this condition, as it is generally effective for specific types of **epileptic encephalopathies** and not generalized idiopathic epilepsies like JME. *Rolandic epilepsy* - **Rolandic epilepsy** (benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes) often resolves spontaneously and may not require treatment, but if seizures are frequent, drugs like gabapentin or carbamazepine are used. - ACTH has no established role in the treatment of Rolandic epilepsy, which is a **focal idiopathic epilepsy** with a good prognosis. *Lennox Gastaut syndrome* - While a severe epileptic encephalopathy, the initial management for **Lennox-Gastaut syndrome** (LGS) typically involves a combination of antiepileptic drugs such as valproate, lamotrigine, clobazam, or rufinamide. - ACTH may be considered as an adjunctive treatment in refractory cases of LGS, but it is not the **first-line drug of choice**, unlike in West syndrome where it holds a primary role.

Q: Which of the following cyanotic heart diseases cause increased pulmonary blood flow? 1. Ebstein anomaly 2. Tetralogy of Fallot 3. Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) 4. Total anomalous pulmonary venous communication (TAPVC) Select the correct combination:

3,4. ***3,4 (TGA and TAPVC)*** - **Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)** involves two parallel circulations with the aorta arising from the right ventricle and pulmonary artery from the left ventricle. Mixing occurs through defects (ASD, VSD, or PDA), leading to **pulmonary overcirculation** as oxygenated blood recirculates through the lungs. - **Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)** results in all pulmonary veins draining into the systemic venous circulation (typically right atrium). This causes **increased volume load on the right heart** and subsequently increased pulmonary blood flow, with obligatory mixing at the atrial level. *1,2 (Ebstein and ToF)* - Both conditions cause **decreased pulmonary blood flow**. - **Ebstein anomaly** involves apical displacement of the tricuspid valve with "atrialization" of the right ventricle, causing tricuspid regurgitation and right-to-left shunting through an ASD/PFO. - **Tetralogy of Fallot** features right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (pulmonary stenosis) as its defining feature, causing reduced pulmonary blood flow. *2,4* - Incorrect combination: **Tetralogy of Fallot causes decreased pulmonary blood flow** due to RVOT obstruction, not increased. *1,4* - Incorrect combination: **Ebstein anomaly causes decreased pulmonary blood flow**, not increased.

Q: Match the following antiarrhythmic drugs with their mechanism of action: | Mechanism of action | Drug | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Na+ channel blocker | A. Quinidine | | 2. K+ channel blocker | B. Digoxin | | 3. Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor | C. Esmolol | | 4. Beta-blocker | D. Ibutilide |

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C. ***1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C*** - **Quinidine** is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug that primarily blocks **sodium channels**, prolonging the action potential duration and refractoriness. - **Ibutilide** is a Class III antiarrhythmic drug that blocks **potassium channels**, leading to delayed repolarization and increased effective refractory period. - **Digoxin** inhibits the **Na+/K+ ATPase pump**, increasing intracellular calcium and affecting AV nodal conduction. - **Esmolol** is a **beta-blocker** (Class II antiarrhythmic) that reduces heart rate and contractility by blocking β1-adrenergic receptors. *1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B* - This option incorrectly matches **Esmolol** (a beta-blocker) with **K+ channel blocker** and **Ibutilide** (K+ channel blocker) with **Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor**. - It also incorrectly matches **Digoxin** (Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor) with **beta-blocker**. *1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B* - This option incorrectly matches **Ibutilide** (K+ channel blocker) with **Na+ channel blocker** and incorrectly matches **Quinidine** (Na+ channel blocker) with **Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor**. - It also incorrectly matches **Digoxin** (Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor) with **beta-blocker**. *1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C* - This option incorrectly matches **Ibutilide** (K+ channel blocker) with **Na+ channel blocker** and **Digoxin** (Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor) with **K+ channel blocker**. - It also incorrectly matches **Quinidine** (Na+ channel blocker) with **Na+K+ ATPase inhibitor**.

Q: A child presents with cyanosis. His chest radiograph is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). ***Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)*** - The chest radiograph shows a **boot-shaped heart (coeur en sabot)** due to **right ventricular hypertrophy** and a **concave pulmonary artery segment** (absent main pulmonary artery segment), which is characteristic of TOF. - The patient also presents with **cyanosis**, a common symptom of TOF due to right-to-left shunting. *Transposition of great arteries (TGA)* - TGA typically presents with a **"egg-on-a-string" appearance** on chest radiograph, indicating a narrow superior mediastinum and increased pulmonary vascular markings, which is not seen here. - While patients with TGA are cyanotic, the cardiac silhouette on this radiograph is inconsistent with the classic TGA findings. *Ebstein's anomaly* - Ebstein's anomaly is characterized by **apical displacement of the tricuspid valve**, leading to a large right atrium and massive **cardiomegaly** on chest X-ray, often described as a "box-shaped" heart, which is not evident in the provided image. - While it causes cyanosis, the heart size in the image is not markedly enlarged enough to suggest Ebstein's anomaly. *Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVC)* - TAPVC typically presents with a **"snowman" or "figure-of-8" appearance** on chest X-ray due to a dilated superior vena cava and left brachiocephalic vein, or a small heart with increased pulmonary vascularity, neither of which is present in the image. - Although TAPVC causes cyanosis, the specific radiographic features like the "boot-shaped" heart rule out this diagnosis.

Q: Identify the condition based on the non-contrast CT scan of a patient given below.

Hydatid cyst. ***Hydatid cyst*** - The image distinctly shows a **large, well-defined cyst with internal septations**, consistent with the daughter cysts and collapsed membranes within a hydatid cyst (the "**water lily sign**"). - The thick, often calcified wall surrounding the lesion is a characteristic feature often seen in **Echinococcus granulosa** infection. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - **Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)** typically appears as a **solid, enhancing mass** (especially on contrast-enhanced CT) and does not usually present with clearly defined internal septations or "water lily" sign on non-contrast imaging. - While HCC can show necrosis, it does not form the characteristic cystic structure seen here. *Liver abscess* - A **liver abscess** would typically appear as a ill-defined, fluid-filled lesion that may have a rim of enhancement on contrast CT, but it generally lacks the **distinct internal septations** or daughter cysts characteristic of a hydatid cyst. - Abscesses are often associated with signs of infection like fever and elevated inflammatory markers. *Fibronodular hyperplasia* - **Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)** is a benign liver lesion characterized by a central scar and is typically **isodense or slightly hypodense** to the liver parenchyma on non-contrast CT. - It does not present as a cystic lesion with internal daughter cysts or calcified walls.

Question 1

Fingerprint first develops in how many weeks of intrauterine life?

Accepted Answer

12-16

Answer

20-24

Answer

28-32

Answer

32-36

Question 2

A 7-year-old child presents to the dermatology clinic with multiple small, painless, flesh-colored papules on the trunk and arms that have been present for 3 months. The lesions are 2-4 mm in diameter, dome-shaped with a smooth surface, and several have a characteristic central umbilication. The child is otherwise healthy and immunocompetent. The lesions are not pruritic and there is no associated lymphadenopathy. On closer examination, a white, cheesy material can be expressed from the central depression of some lesions.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Molluscum contagiosum

Answer

Trichodysplasia spinulosa

Answer

Condyloma acuminata

Answer

Donovanosis

Question 3

Post-mortem examination of a patient reveals the following. What is this finding known as?

Accepted Answer

Hesitation cuts

Answer

Grazed abrasion

Answer

Defense wounds

Answer

Chop wounds

Question 4

Treatment of choice for acute arsenic poisoning is:

Accepted Answer

Dimercaprol

Answer

Ipecac

Answer

Penicillamine

Answer

Activated charcoal

Question 5

Adrenocorticotropic hormone is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

West syndrome

Answer

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Answer

Rolandic epilepsy

Answer

Lennox Gastaut syndrome

Question 6

Which of the following cyanotic heart diseases cause increased pulmonary blood flow?

1. Ebstein anomaly
2. Tetralogy of Fallot
3. Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
4. Total anomalous pulmonary venous communication (TAPVC)

Select the correct combination:

Accepted Answer

3,4

Answer

1,2

Answer

2,4

Answer

1,4

Question 7

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the given graph?

Accepted Answer

Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist

Answer

Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 2 represents inverse agonist

Answer

Drug 3 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist

Answer

Drug 2 represents partial agonist and drug 3 represents inverse agonist

Question 8

Match the following antiarrhythmic drugs with their mechanism of action:

Accepted Answer

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

Answer

1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

Answer

1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

Answer

1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Question 9

A child presents with cyanosis. His chest radiograph is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Answer

Transposition of great arteries (TGA)

Answer

Ebstein's anomaly

Answer

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVC)

Question 10

Identify the condition based on the non-contrast CT scan of a patient given below.

Accepted Answer

Hydatid cyst

Answer

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer

Liver abscess

Answer

Focal nodular hyperplasia

INI-CET 2022

Anatomy

Dermatology

Forensic Medicine

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Radiology